Endocrine
Question 1:
In addition to appetite regulation, what other physiological process is influenced by glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1)?
a) Blood clotting
b) Bone density
c) Immune response
d) Insulin secretion
e) Memory formation
Question 2:
Which of the following is NOT a component of a hormonal feedback loop?
a) Hormone
b) Receptor
c) Effector
d) Stimulus
e) Control centre
Question 3:
Which hormone is responsible for regulating calcium levels in the blood?
a) Insulin
b) Thyroxine
c) Parathyroid hormone
d) Cortisol
e) Growth hormone
Question 4:
Which hormone is primarily produced by the stomach and plays a role in signalling hunger to the brain?
a) Leptin
b) Ghrelin
c) GLP-1
d) Thyroxine (T4)
e) Cortisol
Question 5:
Which hormone is released by the adrenal glands in response to stress and helps the body cope with it?
a) Insulin
b) Aldosterone
c) Epinephrine
d) Thyroid hormone
e) Parathyroid hormone
Question 6:
What is the primary function of glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) in appetite regulation?
a) Stimulating appetite and food intake
b) Enhancing insulin secretion
c) Increase blood concentration of glucose
d) Regulating blood pressure
e) Promoting fat storage
Question 7:
What is the primary function of leptin in appetite regulation?
a) Stimulating hunger and food intake
b) Promoting fat storage
c) Suppressing appetite and increasing energy expenditure
d) Regulating blood glucose levels
e) Enhancing insulin sensitivity
Question 8:
Which hormone is released by the thyroid gland and plays a crucial role in regulating the body’s metabolic rate?
a) Melatonin
b) Calcitonin
c) Cortisol
d) Thyroxine
e) adrenaline
Question 9:
What is the term for the underproduction or no production of insulin during childhood by the pancreas, leading to elevated blood glucose levels?
a) Diabetes insipidus
b) Type 1 diabetes mellitus
c) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
d) LADA (diabetes)
e) MODY (diabetes)
Question 10:
Which hormone is responsible for promoting water reabsorption in the kidneys, thereby reducing urine output and conserving body fluids?
a) Thyroxine
b) Progesterone
c) Aldosterone
d) Renin
e) Glucagon
Question 11:
Which imaging modality is best suited for identifying the hypothalamus and pituitary gland on a sagittal plane?
a) Computed Tomography (CT)
b) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
c) Ultrasound (US)
d) X-ray
e) Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
Question 12:
During embryological development, the thyroid gland descends from its initial position at the base of the tongue to its final location in the neck. What structure guides this descent ?
a) Thyroid cartilage
b) Cricothyroid
c) Thyroglossal duct
d) Cricoid
e) foramen caecum
Question 13:
Which of the following is considered an endocrine tissue involved in regulating food intake?
a) Liver
b) Kidney
c) Large intestine
d) Adipose
e) small intestine
Question 14:
Which sex steroid is primarily responsible for maintaining the uterine lining during pregnancy?
a) Oestrogen
b) Progesterone
c) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
d) b-HCG
e) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Question 15:
Which of the following conditions is characterized by excessive sex steroid production in the ovaries and can lead to symptoms like irregular menstruation and ovarian cysts?
a) Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS)
b) Hypogonadism
c) Menopause
d) Primary hyperparathyroidism
e) Adrenal insufficiency
Question 16:
Which major endocrine gland is often referred to as the “master gland” because it controls the functions of other endocrine glands?
a) Hypothalamus
b) Thyroid gland
c) Parathyroid gland
d) Pituitary gland
e) Adrenal gland
Question 17:
How does the feedback loop between sex steroids and LH/FSH regulate the menstrual cycle?
a) High LH/FSH levels trigger menstruation.
b) Low sex steroid levels stimulate LH/FSH release.
c) Elevated sex steroid levels inhibit LH/FSH secretion.
d) LH/FSH have no influence on sex steroid levels.
e) LH/FSH levels remain constant throughout the cycle.
Question 18:
Which of the following hormones is primarily responsible for stimulating the production of androgens?
a) Follicle stimulating Hormone (FSH)
b) Thyroxine (T4)
c) Testosterone
d) Luteinizing hormone (LH)
e) Oestrogen
Question 19:
What is a clinical example of hypogonadism?
a) Ovulation during the menstrual cycle
b) Puberty and growth spurts in adolescents
c) Elevated testosterone levels in males
d) Delayed or absent menstruation in females
e) High levels of LH and FSH in adults
Question 20:
Which of the following hormones is responsible for promoting uterine contractions during labor and milk ejection during breastfeeding?
a) Oxytocin
b) Oestrogen
c) Progesterone
d) Prolactin
e) hCG
Question 21:
What hormone does the pancreas produce to raise blood glucose levels when they become too low?
a) GLP-1
b) Glucagon
c) Adrenaline
d) Insulin
e) Melatonin
Question 22:
Which of the following is the main inhibitor for the release of vasopressin?
a) High blood osmolality
b) Low blood osmolality
c) Decreased blood volume
d) Aldosterone production
e) Sympathetic nervous system activation
Question 23:
In the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS), what is the primary function of angiotensin II?
a) Stimulating red blood cell production
b) Promoting sodium absorption in the kidneys
c) Increasing heart rate
d) Constricting blood vessels and raising blood pressure
e) Regulating calcium levels in the blood
Question 24:
What hormone stimulates the production of red blood cells in response to low oxygen levels in the blood?
a) Cortisol from Adrenal Cortex
b) Erythropoietin from Liver
c) Cortisol from kidneys
d) Thyroxine from Thyroid gland
e) Erythropoietin from Kidneys
Question 25:
Which of the following locations is GLUT5 primarily found?
a) Liver
b) Duodenum
c) Kidneys
d) Jejunum
e) Brain
Question 26:
Which of the following characteristics best describes the GLUT1 transporter and what does this imply for its function?
a) GLUT1 is found in pancreas and liver.
b) GLUT1 displays cooperative binding kinetics.
c) GLUT1 exhibits a low Km value.
d) GLUT1 has a preference for fructose transport.
e) GLUT1 is primarily expressed in adipose tissue.
Question 27:
Which type of cell surface receptor is activated by insulin?
a) Ion channel receptor
b) G-protein coupled receptor
c) Tyrosine Kinase receptor
d) Nuclear receptor
e) Steroid receptor
Question 28:
Which of the following hormones are primarily implicated in the aetiology of Addison’s disease?
a) Adrenaline and aldosterone
b) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
c) Thyroxine (T4) and cortisol
d) Cortisol and aldosterone
e) Cortisol and DHEA
Question 29:
Which intricate task do Sertoli cells primarily undertake within the testicular microenvironment?
a) Facilitation of testosterone synthesis
b) Orchestration of spermatogonia stem cell renewal
c) Provision of nourishment for Leydig cells
d) Mediation of spermatozoa transport
e) Maturation of sperm
Question 30:
Which event typically occurs on day 14 of the menstrual cycle in women?
a) Maturation of a secondary follicle
b) Secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum
c) Shedding of the endometrial lining
d) Follicular phase dominance
e) LH surge
Question 31:
Which of the following neuropeptides is considered anorexigenic, meaning it suppresses appetite?
a) Neuropeptide Y (NPY)
b) Agouti-related peptide (AgRP)
c) Pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC)
d) Ghrelin
e) Orexin
Question 32:
Which of the following factors is known to increase insulin sensitivity?
a) Cortisol
b) thyroxine
c) Adiponectin
d) Growth hormone
e) Adrenaline
Question 33:
How are the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland connected in terms of their anatomical relationship?
a) The hypothalamus is situated below the pituitary gland.
b) The hypothalamus and the pituitary gland are physically separated and do not have a direct connection.
c) The hypothalamus is located above and connected to the anterior pituitary via the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.
d) The hypothalamus is located above and connected to the posterior pituitary via the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.
e) The hypothalamus is part of the posterior pituitary.
Question 34:
Which hormonal imbalance is commonly associated with pheochromocytoma?
a) Insulin overproduction
b) Thyroid hormone deficiency
c) Excess catecholamines
d) Elevated cortisol levels
e) Decreased growth hormone secretion
Question 35:
What hormones are secreted by the posterior pituitary, and what is their primary function?
a) Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH), regulating uterine contractions and water balance, respectively.
b) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), controlling thyroid and adrenal gland functions, respectively.
c) Prolactin and growth hormone (GH), promoting milk production and growth, respectively.
d) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), regulating reproductive functions.
e) Cortisol and aldosterone, controlling stress response and electrolyte balance.
Question 36:
Which hormones are produced by the anterior pituitary, and what are their primary functions?
a) Oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (ADH), controlling uterine contractions and water balance.
b) Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), promoting thyroid and adrenal gland functions.
c) Prolactin and growth hormone (GH), regulating uterine lining and growth, respectively.
d) prolactin and luteinizing hormone (LH), regulate uterine lining and oversee reproductive functions.
e) Cortisol and aldosterone, managing stress response and electrolyte balance.
Question 37:
Which hormones are primarily released from the zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex?
a) glucocorticoids e.g. cortisol
b) Epinephrine and norepinephrine
c) mineralocorticoids e.g. aldosterone
d) Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA) and androstenedione
e) Corticosteroids
Question 38:
What is the primary function of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) produced by the anterior pituitary?
a) stimulating cortisol release from the liver
b) Promoting growth and cell division
c) Stimulating cortisol release from the adrenal cortex
d) Controlling water balance in the body
e) Regulating blood calcium levels
Question 39:
Which ion is crucial for the biosynthesis of thyroxine (T4)?
a) Sodium (Na)
b) Calcium (Ca2+)
c) Iron (Fe2+)
d) Iodide (I-)
e) Potassium (K+)
Question 40:
Differentiate between the direct and indirect effects of growth hormone (GH)?
a) Direct effects involve stimulating growth of target tissues, while indirect effects involve inhibiting growth.
b) Direct effects include increasing bone density, while indirect effects include promoting muscle growth.
c) Direct effects involve acting on target tissues, while indirect effects involve stimulating insulin production.
d) Direct effects involve GH binding to target cells, while indirect effects involve GH acting through insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1).
e) Direct effects include promoting fat storage, while indirect effects involve increasing metabolism.
Question 41:
From which molecule are steroid hormones like cortisol and vitamin D derived?
a) Glucose
b) Amino acids
c) Fatty acids
d) Cholesterol
e) Glycogen
Question 42:
What is the initial physiological event commonly observed in the development of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
a) Hyperglycaemia
b) Hyperinsulinemia
c) Hypoglycaemia
d) Ketoacidosis
e) hyperproteinemia
Question 43:
What is the primary function of calcitriol (1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3)?
a) Enhancement of calcium and phosphate absorption in the kidneys
b) Promotion of erythropoiesis
c) Maintenance of bone density
d) Enhancement of calcium and phosphate absorption in the small intestines
e) Regulation of blood pressure
Question 44:
Which glucose transporter is primarily regulated by insulin?
a) GLUT1
b) GLUT2
c) GLUT3
d) GLUT4
e) GLUT5
Question 45:
What is the key mechanism for regulating the secretion of growth hormone (GH) in the body?
a) Negative feedback by IGF-1
b) Positive feedback by thyroid hormones
c) Direct stimulation by cortisol
d) Inhibition by prolactin
e) Random fluctuations in GH production
Question 46:
Which glucose transporter facilitates the entry of glucose into beta cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans?
a) GLUT1
b) GLUT2
c) GLUT3
d) GLUT4
e) GLUT5
Question 47:
Which of the following glucose transporters plays a crucial role in glucose uptake by muscle and fat cells?
a) GLUT-1
b) GLUT-2
c) GLUT-3
d) GLUT-4
e) GLUT-5
Question 48:
What is the primary role of insulin in glucose level regulation?
a) Promoting glycogen breakdown
b) Stimulating gluconeogenesis
c) inhibiting glycogenesis
d) Facilitating glucose uptake into cells
e) Inhibiting pancreatic alpha cells
Question 49:
In glucose metabolism, what is the primary role of glucagon?
a) Promoting glycogenesis
b) Increasing insulin secretion
c) Stimulating glucose uptake by cells
d) Raising blood glucose levels
e) Inhibiting liver function
.
Question 50:
During fasting, which hormone plays a key role in stimulating the breakdown of stored glycogen in the liver?
a) Insulin
b) Cortisol
c) Glucagon
d) adrenaline
e) Growth hormone (GH)
Question 51:
What is the physiological stress response to hypoglycaemia?
a) Increased insulin secretion
b) Decreased glucagon secretion
c) Release of epinephrine and cortisol
d) Suppression of appetite
e) Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system
Question 52:
How would you define Type I diabetes?
a) A condition characterized by insulin resistance and obesity
b) A condition resulting from relative insulin deficiency
c) A simple deficiency state of insulin production
d) A condition caused by an autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells
e) A disorder primarily associated with insulin hypersecretion
Question 53:
How does Type II diabetes develop insulin resistance?
a) It is characterised by insulin hypersecretion.
b) It is the result of obesity and decreased insulin sensitivity due to insulin hypersecretion for a prolonged period of time
c) It is primarily caused by genetic factors.
d) It is characterised by high body weight and enhanced insulin sensitivity.
e) It is caused by insulin resistance without any association with obesity.
Question 54:
What is the primary function of aromatase in the body?
a) Promoting muscle growth
b) Involved in converting oestrogen into progesterone
c) Converting testosterone into oestrogen
d) Regulating LH and FSH secretion
e) Stimulating sperm production
Question 55:
Which glucose transporter is primarily found in the liver and is essential for glucose uptake and release to regulate blood glucose levels?
a) GLUT-1
b) GLUT-2
c) GLUT-3
d) GLUT-4
e) GLUT-5
Question 56:
In addition to glucose regulation, what is another major function of insulin in the body?
a) Promoting protein breakdown
b) Increasing fat synthesis
c) Suppressing appetite
d) Regulating blood pressure
e) Stimulating cortisol release
Question 57:
What is the primary function of thyroid hormones in the body?
a) Regulating calcium balance
b) Promoting insulin secretion
c) Controlling blood pressure
d) Regulating metabolism
e) Enhancing blood clotting
Question 58:
In addition to calcium and phosphate regulation, what other physiological process is influenced by parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
a) Haemoglobin synthesis
b) Blood pressure regulation
c) regulating metabolism
d) Bone remodelling
e) Insulin secretion
Question 59:
Which of the following is a common symptom of hypoparathyroidism?
a) Hypercalcemia
b) Muscle weakness
c) Elevated phosphate levels
d) Increased bone density
e) Cardiac arrhythmias
Question 60:
How does parathyroid hormone (PTH) regulate vitamin D in the body?
a) PTH inhibits the activation of vitamin D.
b) PTH stimulates the activation of vitamin D.
c) PTH has no effect on vitamin D.
d) PTH promotes vitamin D breakdown.
e) PTH decreases vitamin D absorption.
Question 61:
How do thyroid hormones influence growth and neuronal development in children?
a) By inhibiting bone growth and brain development
b) By reducing neuronal connections in the brain
c) By promoting growth of long bones and enhancing brain development
d) By slowing down growth and neuronal function
e) By impairing cognitive function
Question 62:
What is the result of T3/T4 deficiency in adults?
a) Increased metabolic rate and energy levels
b) weight gain and heat intolerance
c) Weight loss and muscle wasting
d) fatigue, weight gain, and cold intolerance
e) Heat intolerance, weight loss and anxiety
Question 63:
What is the primary result of T3/T4 deficiency in children?
a) Increased growth and development
b) Increased cognitive function
c) Growth retardation and developmental delay
d) Hyperactivity and behavioural problems
e) Decreased athletic performance
Question 64:
What is the common cause of Addison’s disease?
a) Excessive cortisol production
b) Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal cortex
c) Overproduction of aldosterone
d) Pituitary adenoma
e) Insulin resistance
Question 65:
Conn’s syndrome is primarily associated with the overproduction of which hormone by the adrenal glands?
a) Glucocorticoids
b) Aldosterone
c) Androgens
d) Thyroxine (T4)
e) Epinephrine
Question 66:
What is the primary effect of thyroid hormones on heart rate and contractility?
a) Increasing heart rate and contractility
b) Decreasing heart rate and contractility
c) Having no effect on heart function
d) Slowing down heart rate while increasing contractility
e) Speeding up heart rate while decreasing contractility
Question 67:
How do glucocorticoids affect lipid metabolism?
a) Promoting fat breakdown and utilization
b) Inhibiting fat absorption in the gut
c) Increasing fat storage in adipose tissue
d) Reducing cholesterol synthesis
e) Stimulating lipogenesis in the liver
Question 68:
How does the adrenal gland respond to acute blood loss as an example of a stressor?
a) It releases insulin to lower blood glucose levels.
b) It promotes vasodilation to increase blood flow.
c) It secretes aldosterone to conserve sodium and water.
d) It releases glucocorticoids to increase blood glucose levels.
e) It stimulates the release of growth hormone.
Question 69:
Which of the following hormones is primarily produced by the adrenal cortex and belongs to the class of glucocorticoids?
a) Epinephrine
b) Norepinephrine
c) Aldosterone
d) Cortisol
e) Testosterone
Question 70:
What is the primary function of mineralocorticoids produced by the adrenal cortex?
a) Regulating blood glucose levels
b) Promoting bone growth
c) Controlling salt and water balance
d) Enhancing muscle contraction
e) Stimulating red blood cell production
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