Foundation A Block MCQs

Foundation A

Question 1:

What is the term for the process of bone formation that occurs within a cartilage model during fetal development, leading to the formation of long bones?

A) Intramembranous ossification

B) Endochondral ossification

C) Osteogenesis

D) Calcification

E) Remodelling

Question 2:

Which of the following joint types allows for a wide range of motion and is typically found in the shoulder and hip?

A) Hinge joint

B) Pivot joint

C) Ball-and-socket joint

D) Saddle joint

E) Gliding joint

Question 3:

What is the term for the specific site on a chromosome where a particular gene is located?

A) Codon

B) Locus

C) Allele

D) Homolog

E) Exon

Question 4:

Which process involves the separation of homologous chromosomes during cell division …..?

A) Mitosis

B) Meiosis

C) DNA replication

D) Transcription

E) Translation

Question 5:

Which genetic disorder is caused by a mutation affecting a single gene and is characterised by abnormal haemoglobin, leading to distorted red blood cells?

A) Cystic fibrosis

B) Huntington’s disease

C) Sickle cell anaemia

D) Down syndrome

E) Haemophilia

Question 6:

In synaptic signalling, what is the role of neurotransmitters?

A) Inducing phosphorylation of receptor proteins for downstream effects

B) Permitting ion exchange across synaptic clefts to propagate action potentials

C) Mediating electrochemical signal transmission across synapses

D) Triggering synaptic plasticity and long-term potentiation mechanisms

E) Regulating neuropeptide secretion and synaptic vesicle dynamics

Question 7:

Which process involves the reading of the mRNA code to synthesise a protein?

A) Transcription

B) Translation

C) Replication

D) Segregation

E) Crossing over

Question 8:

Which genetic disorder is characterised by the expansion of a trinucleotide repeat sequence in a particular gene, leading to progressive degeneration of nerve cells?

A) Cystic fibrosis

B) Down syndrome

C) Huntington’s disease

D) Haemophilia

E) Turner syndrome

Question 9:

During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

A) G1 phase

B) S phase

C) G2 phase

D) M phase

E) Interphase

Question 10:

Which type of cell division results in the formation of two genetically identical daughter cells?

A) Mitosis

B) Meiosis I

C) Meiosis II

D) Binary fission

E) Budding

Question 11:

Which type of joint allows movement in only one plane, like the movement of a door?

A) Ball-and-socket joint

B) Pivot joint

C) Hinge joint

D) Saddle joint

E) Gliding joint

Question 12:

What is the primary function of the Golgi apparatus within a cell?

A) Energy production

B) DNA replication

C) Protein synthesis

D) Lipid synthesis

E) Modification and packaging of molecules

Question 13:

Which concept describes the movement of alleles from one population to another, resulting in a change in allele frequencies?

A) Genetic drift

B) Gene flow

C) Natural selection

D) Mutation

E) Speciation

Question 14:

What is the term for the exchange of genetic material between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes during meiosis?

A) Crossing over

B) Recombination

C) Segregation

D) Replication

E) Translocation

Question 15:

Which phase of the cell cycle is characterised by the division of the cell nucleus and the distribution of replicated chromosomes into daughter cells?

A) G1 phase

B) S phase

C) G2 phase

D) M phase

E) Cytokinesis

Question 16:

Which sub-cellular organelle is responsible for producing ATP through oxidative phosphorylation, playing a crucial role in energy production within the cell?

A) Endoplasmic reticulum

B) Golgi apparatus

C) Mitochondria

D) Cytoplasm

E) Nucleus

Question 17:

Which cellular process involves the programmed death of cells in a controlled manner, crucial for tissue homeostasis and development?

A) Necrosis

B) Autophagy

C) Apoptosis

D) Mitosis

E) Anoikis

Question 18:

Which level of protein structure refers to the specific sequence of amino acids in a protein chain?

A) Primary structure

B) Secondary structure

C) Tertiary structure

D) Quaternary structure

E) Oligomeric structure

Question 19:

Which type of regulation involves an enzyme’s activity being altered by the binding of a molecule at a site other than the active site?

A) Allosteric regulation

B) Competitive inhibition

C) Noncompetitive inhibition

D) Feedback regulation

E) Cooperativity

Question 20:

Which type of biomolecule is characterised by its hydrophobic nature and serves as a major component of cellular membranes?

A) Amino acids

B) Nucleic acids

C) Saccharides

D) Lipids

E) Ions

Question 21:

Which phase of the cell cycle is characterised by active DNA replication?

A) G1 phase

B) S phase

C) G2 phase

D) G0 phase

E) Interphase

Question 22:

Which process involves random changes in allele frequency due to chance?

A) Genetic drift

B) Gene flow

C) Natural selection

D) Mutation

E) Speciation

Question 23:

Which term refers to the process by which cells become specialised for specific functions within an organism?

A) Dedifferentiation

B) Proliferation

C) Apoptosis

D) Cellular fusion

E) Differentiation

Question 24:

Which sub-cellular organelle is responsible for protein synthesis, containing ribosomes and functioning as the cell’s “protein factory”?

A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

B) Golgi apparatus

C) Mitochondria

D) Vesicles

E) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Question 25:

Which biomolecule is primarily composed of a sequence of nucleotide bases, each containing a sugar, phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base?

A) Amino acids

B) Carbohydrates

C) Triglycerides

D) Nucleic acids

E) Monoglycerides

Question 26:

What is the function of cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (CDKs) in the regulation of the cell cycle?

A) They activate cyclins.

B) They facilitate DNA replication.

C) They regulate the progression through cell cycle checkpoints.

D) They induce cellular dedifferentiation.

E) They initiate cellular fusion.

Question 27:

Which class of hormones acts on intracellular receptors after being transported through the bloodstream & are derived from cholesterol?

A) Steroid hormones

B) Peptide hormones

C) Amino acid-derived hormones

D) Thyroid hormones

E) Eicosanoids

Question 28:

Which level of protein structure involves the spatial arrangement of multiple protein subunits in a complex?

A) Primary structure

B) Secondary structure

C) Tertiary structure

D) Quaternary structure

E) Oligomeric structure

Question 29:

Which process involves the movement of solutes against their concentration gradient with the help of membrane proteins?

A) Primary active transport

B) Simple diffusion

C) Osmosis

D) Secondary active transport

E) Facilitated diffusion

Question 30:

Which of the following best describes the function of ligand-gated ion channels in cell-cell communication?

A) Transmitting signals along nerve fibres

B) Facilitating long-term changes in gene expression

C) Initiating kinase cascades for intracellular signalling

D) Enabling the passage of ions between cells

E) Modulating hormone release from endocrine cells

Question 31:

Which term refers to the communication between cells involving the release of signalling molecules that affect cells in the immediate vicinity?

A) Autocrine signalling

B) Paracrine signalling

C) Endocrine signalling

D) Synaptic signalling

E) Juxtacrine signalling

Question 32:

Which type of joint is found between the vertebrae of the spine, allowing limited movement in multiple directions?

A) Ball-and-socket joint

B) Pivot joint

C) Hinge joint

D) Gliding joint

E) Saddle joint

Question 33:

Which organelle is responsible for modifying, sorting, and packaging proteins for transport within or outside the cell?

A) Endoplasmic reticulum

B) Golgi apparatus

C) Mitochondria

D) Vesicles

E) Nucleus

Question 34:

Which type of receptor is commonly found in the plasma membrane and responds to signalling molecules by opening ion channels to allow the passage of ions?

A) Ligand-gated receptor

B) Tyrosine kinase receptor

C) G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR)

D) Nuclear receptor

E) Voltage gated receptors

Question 35:

Which term refers to cell-cell communication involving the release of signalling molecules that affect distant target cells through the bloodstream?

A) Autocrine signalling

B) Paracrine signalling

C) Endocrine signalling

D) Synaptic signalling

E) Juxtacrine signalling

Question 36:

What is the function of nuclear receptors in cell-cell communication?

A) Activation of G-protein signalling pathways

B) Facilitation of cell adhesion

C) Initiation of kinase cascades for intracellular signalling

D) Changes in gene transcription

E) Rapid exchange of ions between cells

Question 37:

Which process involves the conversion of a DNA sequence into an RNA molecule?

A) Transcription

B) Translation

C) Replication

D) Segregation

E) Differentiation

Question 38:

Which process involves the separation of homologous chromosomes during cell division and leads to the formation of haploid cells?

A) Mitosis

B) Meiosis I

C) Meiosis II

D) Binary fission

E) Budding

Question 39:

Which hormone class acts locally on nearby cells after its release, rather than being transported through the bloodstream?

A) Steroid hormones

B) Peptide hormones

C) Amino acid-derived hormones

D) Thyroid hormones

E) Eicosanoids

Question 40:

What process involves the communication between cardiac muscle cells via intercalated discs and allows for synchronised contraction of the heart?

A) Autocrine signalling

B) Paracrine signalling

C) Desmosome junction-mediated communication

D) Tight junction-mediated communication

E) Gap junction-mediated communication

Question 41:

In the context of cell-cell communication, what is the “bystander effect”?

A) Activation of neighbouring cells by signalling molecules

B) Passive diffusion of signalling molecules between cells

C) Inhibition of cellular response to signalling molecules

D) Activation of G-proteins by ligands

E) Opening of ligand-gated channels in adjacent cells

Question 42:

What term describes communication between cells that release signalling molecules to affect their own function?

A) Autocrine signalling

B) Paracrine signalling

C) Endocrine signalling

D) Synaptic signalling

E) Juxtacrine signalling

Question 43:

Which type of receptor is involved in the binding of hydrophobic signalling molecules such as steroid hormones, leading to changes in gene transcription?

A) Ligand-gated receptor

B) Tyrosine kinase receptor

C) G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR)

D) Nuclear receptor

E) Ion channel receptor

Question 44:

What is the primary function of receptor tyrosine kinases (RTKs) in cell-cell communication?

A) To regulate ion channel activity

B) To activate G-protein signalling

C) To promote ligand-gated channel opening

D) To facilitate cell adhesion

E) To initiate cascades for intracellular signalling

Question 45:

What is the primary role of the enteric nervous system in the human body?

A) Regulation of heart rate and blood pressure

B) Control of voluntary muscle movements

C) Coordination of immune responses

D) Control of digestion and gastrointestinal motility

E) Production of hormones for growth and development

Question 46:

How is ATP (adenosine triphosphate) utilised in metabolic pathways to provide energy for cellular processes?

A) ATP acts as a structural component in the cell membrane.

B) ATP releases energy when phosphorylated to ADP (adenosine diphosphate).

C) ATP directly participates in the formation of complex molecules.

D) ATP stores energy in its high-energy phosphate bonds.

E) ATP transfers energy through its role as a coenzyme.

Question 47:

Which metabolic pathway is responsible for the breakdown of glucose to produce energy, generating ATP and pyruvate?

A) Krebs cycle (Citric acid cycle)

B) Glycolysis

C) Gluconeogenesis

D) Oxidative phosphorylation

E) Links reaction

Question 48:

Which medical imaging technique uses X-rays to create detailed cross-sectional images of the body and is commonly used for visualising bones, internal organs, and soft tissues?

A) Ultrasound

B) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

C) Computed Tomography (CT)

D) Positron Emission Tomography (PET)

E) Fluoroscopy

Question 49:

Which term describes specialised regions within lymph nodes where B cells undergo intense proliferation, somatic hypermutation, and affinity maturation in response to antigens?

A) Thymus

B) Antibody-producing centres

C) Germinal centres

D) Memory cells

E) Plasma cells

Question 50:

Which type of immunity involves the production of antibodies by B lymphocytes and provides rapid defence against familiar pathogens?

A) Innate immunity

B) Active immunity

C) Cellular immunity

D) Passive immunity

E) Humoral immunity

Question 51:

What is the main purpose of fluorescence cytometry (FACS analysis) in cell biology?

A) To analyse DNA sequences in cells

B) To determine protein secondary structures in cells

C) To study the distribution of organelles within cells

D) To identify surface antigens on cells and quantitatively analyse cellular characteristics

E) To measure intracellular ATP levels in cells

Question 52:

Which type of growth factors and cytokines are important for the development of red blood cells?

A) Glucagon and insulin

B) Epinephrine and norepinephrine

C) Erythropoietin

D) Oestrogen and progesterone

E) Testosterone and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Question 53:

Which blood cell type is responsible for the transport of oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and carbon dioxide from tissues to the lungs?

A) Erythrocytes

B) Leukocytes

C) Thrombocytes

D) Reticulocytes

E) Lymphocytes

Question 54:

What term describes undifferentiated cells that have the ability to differentiate into any cell type?

A) Pluripotent

B) Multipotent

C) Progenitor cells

D) Totipotent cells

E) Unipotent

Question 55:

Which type of muscle tissue is characterised by its branching fibres, interconnected by intercalated discs?

A) Skeletal muscle

B) Smooth muscle

C) Striated muscle

D) Cardiac muscle

E) Voluntary muscle

Question 56:

What term refers to the process of generating ATP using the energy released during the electron transport chain and the movement of protons across a membrane?

A) Oxidative phosphorylation

B) Glycolysis

C) Substrate-level phosphorylation

D) Gluconeogenesis

E) Citric acid cycle

Question 57:

Which term describes the process of producing glucose from glycerol?

A) Glycolysis

B) Gluconeogenesis

C) Glycogenesis

D) Beta-oxidation

E) Glycogenolysis

Question 58:

Which cranial nerve is responsible for controlling eye movement and pupil constriction?

A) Olfactory nerve (I)

B) Optic nerve (II)

C) Trigeminal nerve (V)

D) Trochlear nerve (IV)

E) Oculomotor nerve (III)

Question 59:

What is the role of G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) in cell-cell communication?

A) GPCRs modulate synaptic transmission by regulating neurotransmitter release.

B) GPCRs facilitate receptor dimerization and intracellular signalling cascades.

C) GPCRs control cellular proliferation through direct interaction with growth factors.

D) GPCRs activate adenylate cyclase or phospholipase C to generate second messengers.

E) GPCRs facilitate endocytosis and recycling of cell surface receptors for signalling attenuation.

Question 60:

Which type of receptor is associated with the insulin receptor and is involved in regulating glucose uptake by cells?

A) G-protein coupled receptor (GPCR)

B) Ligand-gated ion channel

C) Receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK)

D) Mechanoreceptor

E) Voltage-gated receptor

Question 61:

Which process involves the amplification of a specific DNA sequence using a technique that uses a primer?

A) Next-generation sequencing

B) DNA sequencing

C) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

D) DNA transcription

E) Sanger sequencing

Question 62:

What is the purpose of DNA fingerprinting in forensic science?

A) To identify the primary structure of proteins in a biological sample

B) To determine the sequence of nucleotides in a DNA sample

C) To identify individuals based on variations in short tandem repeat sequences

D) To analyse the metabolic pathways in a tissue sample

E) To study gene expression patterns in a cell sample

Question 63:

What distinguishes Sanger sequencing from Next-Generation (NeXT Gen) DNA sequencing methods?

A) Sanger sequencing uses fluorescently labelled nucleotides, while NeXT Gen sequencing uses radioactive labels.

B) Sanger sequencing is faster and more cost-effective than NeXT Gen sequencing.

C) NeXT Gen sequencing reads shorter DNA fragments compared to Sanger sequencing.

D) Sanger sequencing relies on chain termination and gel electrophoresis, while NeXT Gen sequencing uses real-time detection of nucleotide incorporation.

E) Sanger sequencing requires smaller amounts of DNA template than NeXT Gen sequencing.

Question 64:

In Mendelian genetics, what term describes the phenomenon where both alleles are equally expressed in a heterozygous individual?

A) Co-dominance

B) Incomplete dominance

C) Epistasis

D) Penetrance

E) Polygenic inheritance

Question 65:

What type of genetic inheritance involves traits that are determined by genes located on the sex chromosomes?

A) Autosomal dominant inheritance

B) Autosomal recessive inheritance

C) X-linked inheritance

D) Y-linked inheritance

E) Mitochondrial inheritance

Question 66:

Which medical imaging technique provides detailed images of soft tissues & does not involve ionising radiation?

A) X-ray

B) Ultrasound

C) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

D) Computed Tomography (CT)

E) Positron Emission Tomography (PET)

Question 67:

In muscle contraction, which ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and binds to troponin to initiate the sliding of actin and myosin filaments?

A) Na+

B) K+

C) Cl-

D) Ca2+

E) Mg2+

Question 68:

What type of muscle is responsible for involuntary movements of internal organs?

A) Skeletal muscle

B) Smooth muscle

C) Cardiac muscle

D) Striated muscle

E) Voluntary muscle

Question 69:

Which of the following refers to stage 2 of endochondral ossification?

The chondrocytes begin to increase in size while the matrix calcifies around them. These chondrocytes become starved and therefore die.

Blood vessels and fibroblasts migrate into the cartilage. Fibroblasts differentiate into osteoblasts. The calcified cartilage matrix breaks down and is replaced by trabecular bone. The site where this first occurs is known as the primary ossification centre.

Blood vessels grow into the perichondrium. Cells in the perichondrium differentiate into osteoblasts and begin forming bone around the edge of the cartilage shaft known as the periosteum.

The wave of ossification spreads towards the ends of the long bone. Osteoclasts
absorb bone from the centre leaving a marrow cavity. Bone grows inwards from the
periosteum forming the compact bone surrounding the marrow cavity.
Capillaries and osteoblasts migrate into the epiphyses and ossification begins. These areas are now known as secondary ossification centres.

Question 70:

What 2 areas of cartilage remain after the formation of trabecular bone in the epiphysis?

Articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate
Perichondrium and medullary cavity
Epiphyseal plate and periosteum
Articular cartilage and periosteum
Metaphyseal cartilage and articular cartilage

Question 71:

Through which of the following mechanisms do osteoblasts (bone making cells) grow?

Interstitial growth
Intramembranous ossification
Appositional growth
Endochondral ossification
Calcification

Question 72:

Which of the following describes a freely moveable joint?

Gomphosis
Syndesmosis
Synarthrosis
Amphiarthrosis
Diarthrosis

Question 73:

Which of the following is an example of a primary cartilaginous joint?

Suture
Pubic symphysis
Intervertebral joint
1^st rib & sternum
Syndesmosis

Question 74:

Which of the following is not an intra-articular structure found between bones?

menisci
Intra-articular discs
Bursa & fat pads
Intra-articular ligaments
Labra

Question 75:

Which of the following movements are not possible at the foot?

Circumduction
Dorsiflexion
Plantarflexion
Inversion
Eversion

Question 76:

Which of the following is the correct definition for the complete set of ordered chromosomes?

Genotype
Phenotype
Proteome
Karyotype
Prototype

Question 77:

What is the name of the structure formed when DNA wraps around 8 histone proteins?

Octamer
Chromatin fibre
Histone core
Nucleosome
Scaffold

Question 78:

Which of the following refers to loosely packed chromatin in which DNA is more accessible thus allowing more transcription?

Euchromatin
Heterochromatin
Solenoid
Scaffold chromatin
Chromatin loop

Question 79:

Which of the following is a disease that is caused by an autosomal recessive phenotype?

Huntington’s disease
Retinoblastoma
Polycystic kidney disease
Marfan Syndrome
Sickle cell anaemia

Question 80:

Which inheritance pattern is represented by this image?

Autosomal recessive
Autosomal dominant
Mitochondrial
X-linked recessive
X-linked dominant

Question 81:

In complementary base pairing of DNA, which of the following are the correct base pairs?

Adenine & cytosine
Thymine & guanine
Adenine & guanine
Adenine & thymine
Thymine & cytosine

Question 82:

Which of the following enzymes joins Okazaki fragments together?

DNA helicase
Taq polymerase
Telomerase
Primase
Ligase

Question 83:

Ribosomes are synthesised from which of the following molecules?

DNA
RNA
rRNA
mRNA
tRNA

Question 84:

Which of the following structures is required in antegrade (forward) transport of molecules in a cell?

Kinesin
Dynein
Microtubules
Tubulin
Myosin

Question 85:

Which of the following structures are required to move the entire cell?

Microtubules
Actin cytoskeleton
Actin filaments
F – actin
G – actin

Question 86:

Which structure is formed at the end of meiosis I of oogenesis?

Primary oocyte
Secondary oocyte
Polar body
Spermatozoa
Primary spermatocyte

Question 87:

Which of the following is the final mature form of sperm?

Spermatozoa
Primary spermatocyte
Secondary spermatocyte
Spermatid
Spermatogonia

Question 88:

Which of these terms has the following definition: Cells containing more than 2 pairs of homologous chromosomes?

Aneuploidy
Penetrance
Incomplete penetrance
Polyploidy
Lyonization

Question 89:

At which stage of meiosis do primary oocytes arrest at & when do they complete their division?

Prophase I until they are fertilised
Prophase I until the start of the menstrual cycle
Prophase II until the start of the menstrual cycle
Metaphase I until the start of the menstrual cycle
Metaphase II until they are fertilised

Question 90:

If the notch ligand was turned ‘ON’, what is the fate of stem cells in the colonic crypt?

Stem cells arrest
Stem cells die
Stem cells differentiate into absorptive (villous) cells
Stem cells differentiate into secretory (colonic crypt) cells
Stem cells differentiate into Paneth cells (with immune functions)

Question 91:

Which of the following cell types is found in the epidermis of the skin?

Hepatocytes
Langerhans
Chondrocytes
Enterocytes
Keratinocytes

Question 92:

Which of the following cells is found in the skin & functions as a mechanoreceptor?

Merkel cell
Mast cell
Dendritic cell
Melanocyte
Basophil

Question 93:

What type of molecule are cyclins & cyclin-dependant kinases?

Multimer
Polymer
Monomer
Dimer
Oligomer

Question 94:

What type of molecule is p53?

Monomer
Dimer
Trimer
Tetramer
Pentamer

Question 95:

What is the name of the reaction in which products can be both synthesised & broken down?

Catabolic reaction
Anabolic reaction
Amphibolic reaction
Aqueous reaction
Allosteric reaction

Question 96:

The oxidation of fatty acids into AcetylCoA occurs via which of the following reactions?

Gluconeogenesis
Beta oxidation
Substrate level phosphorylation
Lipolysis
Lipogenesis

Question 97:

Which of the following is true about essential & non-essential amino acids?

Essential amino acids cannot be synthesised by the body (need to be obtained by diet) whereas non-essential amino acids can be synthesised by the body.
Essential amino acids can be synthesised by the body whereas non-essential amino acids cannot.
Essential amino acids are vital for use in metabolic reactions whereas non-essential amino acids are not as important & can be supplemented by other sources.
Essential amino acids are used in the synthesis of proteins whereas non-essential amino acids are used in metabolic reactions.
Essential & non-essential amino acids have the same roles.

Question 98:

Which of the following is an example of a second messenger found in the Gs signalling pathway?

Phospholipase C
Calcium ions
Calmodulin
Adenylate cyclase
cAMP

Question 99:

Which of the following is a glial cell that helps to synthesise & circulate cerebrospinal fluid?

Astrocytes
Ependymal cells
Microglial cells
Oligodendrocytes
Neurons

Question 100:

How many spinal nerves are found in the coccyx region of the spinal cord?

1
3 to 4
5
8
12

**Question 101:**

Afferent neurons from the Peripheral Nervous System enter the Central Nervous System through which of the following structures?

Ventral root
Ventral ramus
Dorsal ramus
Dorsal root
Dorsal root ganglion

Question 102:

Which of the following is the 5^th cranial nerve?

Optic
Glossopharyngeal
Accessory
Trigeminal
Vestibulocochlear

Question 103:

Which of the following cranial nerves provides both sensory & motor innervation to the muscles that it innervates?

Fascial nerve (CN VII)
Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
Trochlear nerve (CN IX)
Olfactory nerve (CN I)
Abducens nerve (CN VI)

Question 104:

What are the spinal roots of the brachial plexus?

C4-T1
C5-T1
S2-S4
L1-L5
C1-C4

Question 105:

What is the difference between neurons in the sympathetic & parasympathetic nervous system?

Sympathetic nervous system has 2 neurons involved in a single pathway whereas the parasympathetic nervous system has 1.
Sympathetic nervous system has 1 neuron involved in a single pathway whereas the parasympathetic nervous system has 2.
Both the sympathetic & parasympathetic nervous system have 2 neurons involved in a single pathway.
The sympathetic nervous system has a long preganglionic & a short postganglionic neuron. Whereas the parasympathetic nervous system has a short preganglionic & long post ganglionic neuron.
The sympathetic nervous system has a short preganglionic & long postganglionic neuron. Whereas the parasympathetic nervous system has a long preganglionic & a short postganglionic neuron.

Question 106:

Which of the following scanning techniques is the safest & most used in paediatrics?

Ultrasound scans
MRI scans
CT scans
X-rays
Fluoroscopy

Question 107:

What type of collagen are tendons made up of?

Collagen type I
Collagen type II
Collagen type III
Collagen type IV
Collagen type V

Question 108:

Which of the following structures carries /conveys action potentials into the myocyte?

Sarcoplasmic reticulum
Gap junctions
T-tubules
Calcium ions
Desmosomes

Question 109:

Which of the following is not a characteristic of type I slow twitch fibres?

Red in colour
Abundant number of mitochondria
ATP provided via oxidative phosphorylation
Slow contractile speed
High concentration of glycogen

Question 110:

What is the correct pH of blood?

7.30-7.40
7.35-7.45
7.40-7.45
7.45-7.50
7.50-7.55

Question 111:

Which of the following is the primary site of haematopoiesis in the early embryo?

Liver
Spleen
Yolk sac
Bone marrow
Vertebrae

Question 112:

Which of the following leukocytes is characterised by having a multi-lobed nucleus designed to destroy bacteria?

Lymphocyte
Basophil
Macrophage
Neutrophil
Phagocyte

Question 113:

In flow cytometry, what does forward scatter detect?

Cell complexity
Volume of cytoplasm
Range of surface proteins
Total number of cells present
Size of cell

Question 114:

Which of the following cluster of differentiation markers (CDs) is found on all leukocytes?

CD45
CD34
CD1
CD3
CD8

Question 115:

Which of the following leukocytes is classified as a lymphocyte despite it being part of the innate immune response?

T lymphocyte
B lymphocyte
Natural killer cell
Dendritic cell
Megakaryocyte

Question 116:

Which of the following enzymes is required in antibody class-switch?

RAG enzyme
AID enzyme
VDJ recombinase
Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)
DNA ligase

Question 117:

Which of the following is the 3^rd layer of the epidermis (from superficial to deep) but not in thick skin like hands and feet?

Stratum basale
Stratum corneum
Stratum granulosum
Stratum spinosum
Stratum lucidium

Question 118:

Which epithelium is found in the stratum basale layer of the epidermis?

Simple squamous
Simple cuboidal
Simple columnar
Stratified squamous
Pseudostratified squamous

Question 119:

In which layer of the epidermis do melanocytes reside?

Corneal layer
Granulosum layer
Spinosum layer
Basal layer
Dermis

Question 120:

Which of the following light sources is the most damaging to body cells?

UV-A
UV-B
UV-C
UV-D
Visible light

Question 121:

Which of the following is a tissue resident immune cell that is found in the skin & plays a key role in allergic reactions?

Basophil
Eosinophil
Macrophage
Dendritic cell
Mast cell