Foundation B
Question 1:
What is the initial step of fertilization, and where does it occur?
A) Sperm capacitation in the uterine tube
B) Sperm penetration of the corona radiata
C) Sperm binding to the zona pellucida
D) Sperm fusion with the secondary oocyte
E) Sperm entry into the uterus
Question 2:
During which stage of early development does the blastocyst formation typically occur?
A) Day 0
B) Day 2-3
C) Day 4-5
D) Day 6
E) Day 7-13
Question 3:
What is the main function of the trophoblast during implantation?
A) Formation of the embryonic disc
B) Initiation of zygote cleavage
C) Penetration of the zona pellucida
D) Interaction with the maternal uterine tissue
E) Differentiation into the three germ layers
Question 4:
Which of the following accurately describes the process of embryo hatching?
A) Penetration of the zona pellucida by sperm
B) Invasion of the trophoblast into the endometrium
C) Formation of the blastocyst
D) Release of the embryo from the zona pellucida
E) Differentiation of the embryonic germ layers
Question 5:
During which timeframe does the formation of the bi-laminar embryonic disc occur?
A) Day 0
B) Day 2-3
C) Day 4-5
D) Day 6
E) Day 7-13
Question 6:
During zygote cleavage, what is the term for the solid ball of cells formed by multiple rounds of cell division?
A) Morula
B) Blastocyst
C) Embryonic disc
D) Trophoblast
E) Chorion
Question 7:
Which of the following structures directly contributes to the formation of the placenta?
A) Cytotrophoblast
B) Syncytiotrophoblast
C) Chorionic villi
D) Decidua basalis
E) Amnion
**Answer:**
B) Syncytiotrophoblast
Question 8:
Which T cell subtype is associated with suppressing immune responses and maintaining immune homeostasis?
A) Th1 cells
B) Th2 cells
C) Th17 cells
D) Treg cells
E) Tfh cells
Question 9:
Which type of T cell is primarily responsible for helping other immune cells and enhancing antibody responses?
A) CD4+ T cells
B) CD8+ T cells
C) Regulatory T cells
D) Natural killer cells
E) Memory T cells
Question 10:
What distinguishes CD4+ T cells from CD8+ T cells in terms of their target molecules?
A) CD4+ T cells target antigens presented on Class I MHC molecules
B) CD4+ T cells target antigens presented on Class II MHC molecules
C) CD4+ T cells target antigens presented on both Class I and Class II MHC molecules
D) CD4+ T cells do not recognize antigens
E) CD4+ T cells only target antibodies
Question 11:
Where does the process of fertilization primarily occur?
A) Uterus
B) Cervix
C) Fallopian tube
D) Ovary
E) Vagina
Question 12:
Which antigen processing pathway involves internalizing extracellular antigens through endocytosis, processing them in endosomes, and presenting the resulting fragments using Class II MHC molecules?
A) Endogenous antigen processing
B) Exogenous antigen processing
C) Autophagy
D) Phagocytosis
E) Endogenous pathway
Question 13:
Which type of cells play a pivotal role in capturing, processing, and presenting antigens to activate T cells in the immune response?
A) Neutrophils
B) Erythrocytes
C) Platelets
D) Dendritic cells
E) Natural killer cells
Question 14:
Which type of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules are primarily expressed on the surface of all nucleated cells and present endogenous antigens to cytotoxic T cells?
A) Class I MHC molecules
B) Class II MHC molecules
C) Class III MHC molecules
D) Class IV MHC molecules
E) Class V MHC molecules
Question 15:
In which part of the reproductive tract does the process of embryo hatching primarily occur?
A) Fallopian tube
B) Uterine cavity
C) Cervix
D) Vagina
E) Corpus luteum
Question 16:
Which immune response function involves immediate activation upon pathogen encounter, such as neutrophils engulfing bacteria?
A) Primary adaptive immune response
B) Humoral immune response
C) Secondary immune response
D) Innate immune response
E) Cell-mediated immune response
Question 17:
Which term describes the ability of a virus to remain in the host’s body for a long period without causing symptoms?
A) Latency
B) Chronic infection
C) Persistent infection
D) Acute infection
E) Virulence
Question 18:
Which of the following layers of the embryo directly contributes to the formation of the nervous system?
A) Ectoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Endoderm
D) Trophoblast
E) Chorion
Question 19:
Which term describes the presence of virus particles in the bloodstream?
A) Viraemia
B) Virulence
C) Infection
D) Virion
E) Pathogenesis
Question 20:
Which term refers to intracellular parasites consisting of genetic material (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat?
A) Bacteria
B) Fungi
C) Viruses
D) Protozoa
E) Parasites
Question 21:
Which type of immune cell is responsible for engulfing and destroying pathogens through phagocytosis?
A) B lymphocyte
B) T lymphocyte
C) Natural killer cell
D) Macrophage
E) Basophils
Question 22:
Which immune cell type recognizes antigens and plays a key role in initiating immune responses?
A) Cytokines
B) T lymphocytes
C) Macrophages
D) Neutrophils
E) Platelets
Question 23:
Which T cell subset is involved in promoting inflammation and recruiting neutrophils to sites of infection?
A) Th1 cells
B) Th2 cells
C) Th17 cells
D) Treg cells
E) CD8+ T cells
Question 24:
Which germ layer gives rise to the lining of the respiratory tract, gastrointestinal tract, and associated glands?
A) Ectoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Endoderm
D) Trophoblast
E) Neural crest
Question 25:
Which bacterial structure is responsible for locomotion through the environment?
A) Capsule
B) Nucleus
C) Plasmid
D) Flagellum
E) Pilus
Question 26:
Which T cell subset is involved in suppressing immune responses to prevent excessive inflammation and autoimmunity?
A) Th1 cells
B) Th2 cells
C) Th17 cells
D) Treg cells
E) CD8+ T cells
Question 27:
Which germ layer contributes to the development of the musculoskeletal system, cardiovascular system, and kidneys?
A) Ectoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Endoderm
D) Trophoblast
E) Neural crest
Question 28:
Which of the following is derived from the ectoderm during embryonic development?
A) Liver
B) Lungs
C) Skin
D) Pancreas
E) Digestive tract lining
Question 29:
What is the function of the chorionic villi in placental development?
A) Mediate maternal-foetal nutrient exchange
B) Produce and secrete maternal hormones
C) Secrete maternal antibodies for foetal protection
D) Support placental attachment to the uterine wall
E) Regulate maternal blood pressure and fluid balance
Question 30:
What is the main difference between endogenous and exogenous antigen processing pathways?
A) Endogenous processing involves presentation of antigens on Class I MHC molecules, while exogenous processing involves presentation on Class II MHC molecules.
B) Endogenous processing occurs in specialized antigen-presenting cells (APCs), while exogenous processing occurs in all nucleated cells.
C) Endogenous processing primarily targets antigens from bacterial infections, while exogenous processing targets viral infections.
D) Endogenous processing involves activation of CD4+ T cells, while exogenous processing activates CD8+ T cells.
E) Endogenous processing occurs in the cytoplasm, while exogenous processing occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum.
Question 31:
What is the function of MHC class II molecules?
A) Presentation of endogenous antigens
B) Activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes
C) Recognition of viral antigens
D) Presentation of exogenous antigens
E) Regulation of antibody production
Question 32:
Which chromosome contains the MHC genes responsible for antigen presentation?
A) Chromosome 4
B) Chromosome 6
C) Chromosome 11
D) Chromosome 13
E) Chromosome 16
Question 33:
Which of the following structures forms from the mesoderm and contributes to the development of the urinary and reproductive systems?
A) Notochord
B) Somite
C) Lateral mesoderm
D) Trophoblast
E) Intermediate mesoderm
Question 34:
Which antibody class is the most abundant in the blood and can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity to a developing foetus?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgM
D) IgG
E) IgD
Question 35:
Which antibody class is involved in allergic reactions and defence against parasitic infections?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgM
D) IgG
E) IgD
Question 36:
Which cell surface molecule is responsible for presenting peptides derived from intracellular pathogens to cytotoxic T lymphocytes?
A) MHC class I
B) MHC class II
C) B lymphocyte receptor
D) CD4 receptor
E) CD8 receptor
Question 37:
Which process involves the tagging of foreign particles for engulfing by phagocytes?
A) Opsonization
B) Phagocytosis
C) Chemotaxis
D) Antigen processing and presentation
E) Complement activation
Question 38:
Which antibody class is primarily found in mucosal secretions such as saliva, tears, and breast milk, providing localized immunity?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgM
D) IgG
E) IgD
Question 39:
Which innate immune cells are responsible for destroying infected cells and cancer cells by releasing cytotoxic granules?
A) T lymphocytes (T cells)
B) B lymphocytes (B cells)
C) Natural killer (NK) cells
D) Macrophages
E) Dendritic cells
Question 40:
What is the role of the syncytiotrophoblast in placental development?
A) Precursor to Myeloid Cell lineage
B) Hormone production
C) Formation of the amnion
D) Protection of the embryo
E) Early neural development
Question 41:
Which type of adaptive immune cell is responsible for recognizing and destroying virus-infected cells and cancerous cells?
A) Neutrophil
B) CD8+ T Cell
C) CD4 + T Cell
D) Eosinophil
E) Natural killer cell (NK cell)
Question 42:
Which condition is characterized by the failure of the neural tube to close properly, resulting in incomplete development of the spinal cord?
A) Anencephaly
B) Kleinfelter’s syndrome
C) Spina bifida
D) Hydatidiform mole
E) Microcephaly
Question 43:
Which antibody class is involved in neutralizing toxins and viruses and is the first antibody produced in response to an infection?
A) IgA
B) IgE
C) IgM
D) IgG
E) IgD
Question 44:
Which type of immune cell is involved in recognizing pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) through toll-like receptors (TLRs)?
A) B lymphocytes
B) T lymphocytes
C) Cytokines
D) Macrophages
E) Antibodies
Question 45:
Which immune response involves the activity of macrophages, dendritic cells, and natural killer (NK) cells?
A) Innate immune response
B) Adaptive immune response
C) Humoral immune response
D) Antibody-mediated response
E) Cell-mediated response
Question 46:
Which of the following structures is NOT derived from the ectoderm germ layer?
A) Epidermis
B) Nervous system
C) Muscles
D) Hair and nails
E) Tooth enamel
Question 47:
Which of the following is a key aspect of the embryonic development of the kidney and the gonads?
A) Ectodermal germ layer gives rise to both kidneys and gonads
B) Both kidneys and gonads develop from the endodermal germ layer
C) Kidneys develop from the mesoderm, while gonads develop from the endoderm
D) Kidneys and gonads develop from the intermediate mesoderm.
E) Kidneys develop from the endoderm, while gonads develop from the mesoderm
Question 48:
Which statement regarding the development of the placenta is accurate?
A) It originates solely from the embryonic endoderm
B) It primarily forms from the ectodermal germ layer
C) It arises from trophoblasts
D) Its main function is neural tissue protection
E) Its development is complete during the gastrulation stage
Question 49:
Which of the following accurately describes gastrulation in embryonic development?
A) Formation of the neural tube
B) Formation of the notochord
C) Formation of the trilaminar embryonic disc with three germ layers
D) Development of the placenta
E) Initiation of cleavage divisions
Question 50:
During which phase of development does the bi-laminar embryonic disc form?
A) Fertilisation
B) Cleavage
C) Blastulation
D) Implantation
E) Gastrulation
Question 51:
What does the sperm penetrate so it can fuse with the oocyte’s plasma membrane, leading to the formation of a diploid cell?
A) Theca interna and granulosa cells
B) Corona radiata and Zona Pellucida
C) Acrosin and zona pellucida
D) Hyaluronidase and acrosin
E) Neuraminidase and corona radiata
Question 52:
Which of the following is a derivative of the fourth pharyngeal arch?
A) Maxilla
B) Thyroid gland
C) Thyroid cartilage
D) Facial nerve
E) Stapes
Question 53:
Which of the following is a derivative of the third pharyngeal arch?
A) Glossopharyngeal nerve
B) Maxilla
C) Thyroid gland
D) Thymus
E) Stapes
Question 54:
During which week of embryonic development does the formation of the pharyngeal arches primarily occur?
A) Week 1
B) Week 2
C) Week 3
D) Week 4
E) Week 5
Question 55:
During which week of embryonic development does the neural tube close, forming the precursor to the brain and spinal cord?
A) Week 2
B) Week 3
C) Week 4
D) Week 5
E) Week 6
Question 56:
Which of the following is a derivative of the second pharyngeal arch?
A) Stapes
B) Maxilla
C) Hyoid bone
D) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
E) Parathyroid gland
Question 57:
Which germ layer contributes to the development of the liver and pancreas?
A) Ectoderm
B) Mesoderm
C) Endoderm
D) Trophoblast
E) Neural crest
Question 58:
What is the primary role of the notochord during embryonic development?
A) Formation of the neural tube
B) Formation of somites
C) Development of the peripheral nervous system
D) Induction of mesodermal differentiation
E) Regulation of endodermal development
Question 59:
Which of the following structures is primarily derived from the intermediate mesoderm during embryonic development?
A) Muscles
B) Bones
C) Nervous system
D) Kidneys
E) Skin
Question 60:
What is the function of the liver during embryonic development?
A) Excretes bile
B) Nutrient absorption
C) Haematopoiesis
D) Gas exchange
E) Erythropoiesis
Question 61:
What is the primary purpose of capacitation in sperm cells?
A) To increase the number of mitochondria in the sperm
B) To enable the sperm to undergo meiosis
C) To enhance the sperm’s motility and prepare it for the acrosome reaction
D) To allow the sperm to bind to the oocyte’s plasma membrane
E) To trigger the cortical reaction in the oocyte
Question 62:
What is the role of the enzyme hyaluronidase in fertilisation?
A) It hydrolyses the proteins of the zona pellucida
B) It digests the corona radiata cells surrounding the oocyte
C) It triggers the cortical reaction
D) It activates the sperm’s motility
E) It facilitates the binding of the sperm to the oocyte’s plasma membrane
Question 63:
During the acrosome reaction, which enzymes are released, and what is their function?
A) Lysozyme and protease; they degrade the zona pellucida
B) Hyaluronidase and acrosin; they digest the zona pellucida
C) Acrosin, neuraminidases, and esterases; they digest the zona pellucida
D) Protease and lipase; they digest the plasma membrane of the oocyte
E) Hyaluronidase and lysozyme; they facilitate sperm binding to the oocyte
Question 64:
To which receptor on the zona pellucida does the sperm bind to during fertilisation?
A) ZP1
B) ZP2
C) ZP3
D) ZP4
E) ZP5
Question 65:
What is the cortical reaction, and what is its primary function during fertilisation?
A) The release of enzymes from the sperm to digest the zona pellucida; to enhance sperm motility
B) The fusion of the sperm and oocyte membranes; to initiate meiosis in the oocyte
C) The release of cortical granules from the oocyte to prevent polyspermy
D) The binding of the sperm to the oocyte’s plasma membrane; to activate the sperm
E) The fusion of multiple sperm with the oocyte; to ensure genetic diversity
Question 66:
Why is acrosin considered essential for the sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida?
A) It directly dissolves the plasma membrane of the oocyte
B) It activates other enzymes needed for penetration
C) It digests glycoproteins in the zona pellucida
D) It binds to the ZP3 receptor on the zona pellucida
E) It facilitates the cortical reaction
Question 67:
What is the primary role of neuraminidases released during the acrosome reaction?
A) To hydrolyse the zona pellucida proteins
B) To modify sperm surface glycoproteins
C) To digest corona radiata cells
D) To cleave sialic acids on the zona pellucida
E) To facilitate sperm-oocyte fusion
Question 68:
Which statement about the cleavage process in human embryogenesis is incorrect?
A) Cleavage results in a rapid increase in cell number without an increase in the overall size of the embryo.
B) Cleavage divisions are characterised by the production of blastomeres.
C) Cleavage divisions result in a multicellular structure called the morula.
D) Cleavage involves significant growth phases between divisions.
E) Cleavage produces cells that will eventually form the blastocyst.
Question 69:
What defines the morula stage of embryonic development?
A) The embryo has formed the inner cell mass and trophoblast.
B) The embryo is a hollow ball of cells.
C) The embryo consists of a solid ball of 16 cells.
D) The embryo is implanted into the uterine wall.
E) The embryo has differentiated into three germ layers.
Question 70:
The primitive streak is essential for which process in early embryonic development?
A) Formation of the morula
B) Gastrulation
C) Neurulation
D) Implantation
E) Blastocyst formation
Question 71:
What is the primary role of the notochord during early development?
A) It forms the future spinal cord.
B) It induces the formation of the neural tube.
C) It becomes the vertebral column.
D) It forms the future brain.
E) It becomes the central nervous system.
Question 72:
What does the umbilical vein become after birth?
A) Ligamentum teres
B) Ligamentum arteriosum
C) Ductus venosus
D) Round ligament of the uterus
E) Medial umbilical ligaments
Question 73:
What is the primary function of the umbilical arteries and veins during foetal development?
A) Umbilical arteries carry oxygenated blood from the placenta to the foetus.
B) Umbilical veins carry deoxygenated blood from the foetus to the placenta.
C) Umbilical arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the foetus to the placenta.
D) Umbilical veins carry waste products from the foetus to the placenta.
E) Both umbilical arteries and veins carry oxygenated blood.
Question 74:
At what stage does the embryo consist of a solid ball of cells before forming a hollow structure?
A) Zygote
B) Blastocyst
C) Morula
D) Gastrula
E) Neurula
Question 75:
Which key event marks the transition from the morula to the blastocyst stage?
A) Formation of the three germ layers
B) Implantation into the uterine wall
C) Formation of a fluid-filled cavity
D) Development of the primitive streak
E) Fusion of the male and female pronuclei
Question 76:
What is the role of the prechordal plate during early embryonic development?
A) It forms the future spinal cord.
B) It induces the formation of the neural tube.
C) It contributes to the development of the mouth.
D) It becomes the primitive streak.
E) It forms the heart.
Question 77:
During embryonic development, what structures does the cloaca give rise to?
A) The future heart and lungs.
B) The urinary and digestive tracts.
C) The neural tube and spinal cord.
D) The brain and cranial nerves.
E) The limbs and torso.
Question 78:
What is the significance of the oropharyngeal membrane during embryonic development?
A) It forms the future cloaca.
B) It contributes to the formation of the heart.
C) It develops into the future mouth opening.
D) It becomes part of the neural tube.
E) It forms the placenta.
Question 79:
From which structures does the paraxial mesoderm give rise?
A) Heart and blood vessels.
B) Kidneys and gonads.
C) Dermis, skeletal muscles, and vertebrae.
D) Pancreas and liver.
E) Neural tube and brain.
Question 80:
Why is folic acid supplementation important during pregnancy?
A) It prevents miscarriage.
B) It helps in the development of the placenta.
C) It ensures proper closure of the neural tube.
D) It promotes limb development.
E) It enhances cognitive development in the foetus.
Question 81:
Which cranial nerve is associated with the first pharyngeal arch?
A) Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
B) Facial nerve (CN VII)
C) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
D) Vagus nerve (CN X)
E) Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII)
Question 82:
What are the two layers into which the lateral plate mesoderm divides, and what do they form?
A) Ectoderm and endoderm; form the neural tube and gut.
B) Somatic and splanchnic layers; form the body wall and visceral organs.
C) Paraxial and intermediate layers; form muscles and kidneys.
D) Neural crest cells and notochord; form the peripheral nervous system and axial skeleton.
E) Endoderm and mesoderm; form the digestive system and cardiovascular system.
Question 83:
What is the primary role of epitopes in the immune response?
A) They are molecules that induce an immune response.
B) They are antibodies produced by B cells.
C) They are receptors on T cells that recognise foreign antigens.
D) They are specific regions on antigens that are recognised by immune cells.
E) They are structures that directly kill pathogens.
Question 84:
Which cell type is primarily involved in combating parasitic infections and is characterised by large granules in the cytoplasm?
A) Neutrophils
B) Eosinophils
C) Basophils
D) Fibroblasts
E) Mast cells
Question 85:
What role do Pattern Recognition Receptors (PRRs) play in the immune system?
A) They recognise and bind to specific antibodies.
B) They initiate the complement cascade.
C) They detect pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) and damage-associated molecular patterns (DAMPs).
D) They directly kill pathogens.
E) They produce acute phase proteins.
Question 86:
What is the primary purpose of the complement cascade?
A) To produce antibodies.
B) To directly lyse pathogen membranes.
C) To activate T cells.
D) To promote cell proliferation.
E) To transport nutrients to immune cells.
Question 87:
What is the purpose of V(D)J recombination and where does it occur?
A) To generate diversity in antibodies and T cell receptors; occurs in the bone marrow and thymus.
B) To repair DNA damage; occurs in all somatic cells.
C) To synthesise proteins; occurs in the cytoplasm.
D) To replicate genetic material; occurs in the nucleus.
E) To release energy; occurs in mitochondria.
Question 88:
Which complement component acts as a major opsonin and plays a crucial role in tagging pathogens for phagocytosis?
A) C3b
B) C4a
C) C5b
D) C3a
E) C7
Question 89:
Which complement components are primarily involved in generating the membrane attack complex (MAC)?
A) C3a, C5a, and C6
B) C5b, C6, C7, C8, and C9
C) C4b, C2a, and C3b
D) C1q, C1r, and C1s
E) C3b and C4a
Question 90:
Which complement components act as anaphylatoxins, leading to inflammation and recruitment of immune cells?
A) C3b and C4b
B) C5a and C3a
C) C6 and C7
D) C1q and C2a
E) C8 and C9
Question 91:
Which complement pathway is triggered by the direct recognition of microbial surface structures without the need for antibodies?
A) Classical pathway
B) Lectin pathway
C) Alternative pathway
D) Terminal pathway
E) Complement regulatory pathway
Med Wiz 