Musculoskeletal
1. What is the primary function of the sciatic nerve?
A) Motor innervation of the biceps femoris, sartorius and semitendinosus
B) Sensory innervation of the medial thigh
C) Motor innervation of the biceps femoris, semitendinosus and semimembranosus
D) Sensory innervation of the lateral leg
E) Motor innervation of the adductor muscles
Answer 1: C
Explanation: The primary function of the sciatic nerve is motor innervation of the hamstrings, including the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and semimembranosus muscles.
A) Motor innervation of the biceps femoris, sartorius, and semitendinosus: Incorrect because the whilst the bicep femoris and semitendinosus are innervated by the sciatic nerve the sartorius is innervated by the femoral nerve, not the sciatic nerve.
B) Sensory innervation of the medial thigh: Incorrect because sensory innervation of the medial thigh is provided by the obturator nerve, not the sciatic nerve.
D) Sensory innervation of the lateral leg: Incorrect because the lateral leg is innervated by the common fibular (peroneal) nerve, a branch of the sciatic nerve, but this is not the primary function of the sciatic nerve.
E) Motor innervation of the adductor muscles: Incorrect because the adductor muscles are mainly innervated by the obturator nerve, not the sciatic nerve.
2. In the context of the musculoskeletal system, how do ligaments differ from tendons?
a) Ligaments connect bone to bone, while tendons connect muscle to bone.
b) Ligaments connect bone to bone, while tendons connect muscle to muscle.
c) Ligaments connect muscle to muscle, while tendons connect bone to muscle.
d) Ligaments and tendons have the same function but different names.
e) Ligaments and tendons are functionally identical.
Answer: a) Ligaments connect bone to bone, while tendons connect muscle to bone.
Explanation: Ligaments are fibrous connective tissues that connect bone to bone, providing stability to joints, while tendons connect muscles to bones, transmitting the force generated by muscles to bones for movement.
B) Ligaments connect bone to bone, while tendons connect muscle to muscle: Incorrect because tendons do not connect muscle to muscle; they connect muscle to bone. Fascia connects muscle to muscle
C) Ligaments connect muscle to muscle, while tendons connect bone to muscle: Incorrect because ligaments connect bone to bone, not muscle to muscle.
D) Ligaments and tendons have the same function but different names: Incorrect because ligaments and tendons have different functions—ligaments connect bones, and tendons connect muscles to bones.
E) Ligaments and tendons are functionally identical: Incorrect because ligaments stabilize joints by connecting bones, while tendons transmit force from muscles to bones.
3. Which of the following tissues is considered metabolically active and capable of adapting to mechanical stress?
a) Cartilage
b) Ligament
c) Tendon
d) Bone
e) Hair
Answer: d) Bone
Explanation: Bone is a metabolically active tissue that can adapt to mechanical stress. Through processes like remodeling, it can strengthen in response to increased load-bearing, making it a dynamic and living tissue. → people who lifts weights, train martial arts tend to have a higher bone density due to this reason
A) Cartilage: Incorrect because cartilage is less metabolically active and has limited ability to adapt to stress compared to bone.
B) Ligament: Incorrect because ligaments do not remodel in response to mechanical stress like bone does.
C) Tendon: Incorrect because tendons, while strong, are less metabolically active and have limited adaptability compared to bone.
E) Hair: Incorrect because hair is not a living tissue and does not adapt to mechanical stress.
4. Which joint allows for vertical movement/nodding your head “yes,” primarily enabling flexion and extension movements?
a) Atlanto-occipital joint
b) Atlanto-axial joint
c) Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
d) occipito-axial joint
e) Sternoclavicular joint
Answer: a) Atlanto-occipital joint
Explanation: The atlanto-occipital joint connects the atlas (C1 vertebra) to the occipital bone of the skull, allowing for nodding movements of the head in the “yes” direction, mainly flexion and extension. This joint permits the skull to pivot on the vertebral column.
B) Atlanto-axial joint: Incorrect because the atlanto-axial joint allows for rotational movements (shaking the head “no”), not flexion and extension.
C) Temporomandibular joint (TMJ): Incorrect because the TMJ is involved in jaw movements, not head nodding.
D) Occipito-axial joint: Incorrect because this joint does not exist in anatomical terminology.
E) Sternoclavicular joint: Incorrect because the sternoclavicular joint connects the sternum and clavicle and is involved in shoulder movement, not head nodding.
5. Which muscle group is primarily responsible for the movements of chewing and grinding food?
a) Muscles of facial expression
b) Muscles of the tongue
c) Muscles of the pharynx
d) Muscles of mastication
e) Muscles of the larynx
Answer: d) Muscles of mastication
Explanation: Muscles of mastication, including the Masseter, Temporalis and the Lateral and Medial pterygoid muscles, are primarily responsible for the movements of chewing and grinding food in the oral cavity.(More Tea Less Milk)
A) Muscles of facial expression: Incorrect because these muscles control facial movements, not chewing.
B) Muscles of the tongue: Incorrect because these muscles move the tongue, not the jaw for chewing.
C) Muscles of the pharynx: Incorrect because these muscles are involved in swallowing, not chewing.
E) Muscles of the larynx: Incorrect because these muscles control voice production, not chewing.
6. During embryonic development, which structure gives rise to the vertebral column and other skeletal components of the axial skeleton?
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Neuroectoderm
e) Germ cells
Answer: c) Mesoderm
Explanation: The vertebral column and other skeletal components of the axial skeleton originate from the mesoderm layer during embryonic development.
A) Ectoderm: Incorrect because the ectoderm gives rise to the nervous system and skin, not the skeletal system.
B) Endoderm: Incorrect because the endoderm gives rise to internal organs like the gastrointestinal tract, not the skeleton.
D) Neuroectoderm: Incorrect because the neuroectoderm forms the nervous system, not the skeleton.
E) Germ cells: Incorrect because germ cells give rise to reproductive cells, not the skeleton.
7. Which type of vertebra is characterized by a triangular-shaped vertebral foramen and serves as the primary support for the head and neck?
a) Cervical vertebra
b) Thoracic vertebra
c) Lumbar vertebra
d) Sacral vertebra
e) Coccygeal vertebra
Answer: a) Cervical vertebra
Explanation: Cervical vertebrae have a triangular-shaped vertebral foramen and provide support for the head and neck.
B) Thoracic vertebra: Incorrect because thoracic vertebrae are located in the mid-back and support the ribs, not the head and neck.
C) Lumbar vertebra: Incorrect because lumbar vertebrae are in the lower back and do not support the head and neck.
D) Sacral vertebra: Incorrect because sacral vertebrae are fused and form the back of the pelvis, not the neck.
E) Coccygeal vertebra: Incorrect because coccygeal vertebrae make up the tailbone and do not support the head and neck.
8. Which ligament connects the axis (C2 vertebra) to the atlas (C1 vertebra) and allows for rotational movements of the head?
a) Supraspinous ligament
b) Anterior longitudinal ligament
c) Posterior longitudinal ligament
d) Transverse ligament of the atlas
e) Ligamentum flavum
Answer: d) Transverse ligament of the atlas
Explanation: The transverse ligament of the atlas holds the odontoid process of the axis in place and allows for rotational movements at the atlanto-axial joint, enabling side-to-side head movements.
A) Supraspinous ligament: Incorrect because this ligament runs along the tips of the spinous processes of the vertebrae and does not allow for rotational head movements.
B) Anterior longitudinal ligament: Incorrect because this ligament prevents hyperextension of the spine, not rotation of the head.
C) Posterior longitudinal ligament: Incorrect because this ligament prevents hyperflexion of the spine, not rotation of the head.
E) Ligamentum flavum: Incorrect because this ligament connects the laminae of vertebrae and aids in preserving the spine’s curvature, not head rotation.
9. Which of the following movements is primarily associated with the atlanto-axial joint?
a) Flexion and extension
b) Rotation
c) Lateral flexion
d) Protraction and retraction
e) Circumduction
Answer: b) Rotation
Explanation: The atlanto-axial joint allows for rotational movements of the head, such as turning the head to say “no.”
A) Flexion and extension: Incorrect because the atlanto-occipital joint, not the atlanto-axial joint, allows for flexion and extension (nodding the head “yes”).
C) Lateral flexion: Incorrect because lateral flexion occurs primarily in the cervical and lumbar regions, not at the atlanto-axial joint.
D) Protraction and retraction: Incorrect because these movements refer to the forward and backward movement of the jaw or shoulders, not the head.
E) Circumduction: Incorrect because circumduction is a circular movement of a limb, not a movement associated with the atlanto-axial joint.
10. Which component of the intervertebral (IV) disc is responsible for its shock-absorbing properties and resistance to compression?
a) Annulus fibrosus
b) Nucleus pulposus
c) Ligamentum flavum
d) Supraspinous ligament
e) Posterior longitudinal ligament
Answer: b) Nucleus pulposus
Explanation: The nucleus pulposus, located at the center of the IV disc, provides cushioning and resists compression, contributing to the disc’s shock-absorbing properties.
- A) Annulus fibrosus: Incorrect because the annulus fibrosus is the outer layer of the disc that provides strength and prevents over rotation of the vertebrae, not shock absorption.
- C) Ligamentum flavum: Incorrect because this ligament helps maintain spinal posture, not shock absorption in the disc.
- D) Supraspinous ligament: Incorrect because this ligament stabilizes the spine, not the intervertebral disc.
- E) Posterior longitudinal ligament: Incorrect because this ligament prevents hyperflexion of the spine and does not provide shock absorption.
11. Which ligament connects the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae and runs along the posterior aspect of the vertebral column?
a) Ligamentum flavum
b) Supraspinous ligament
c) Anterior longitudinal ligament
d) Interspinous ligament
e) Posterior longitudinal ligament
Answer: b) Supraspinous ligament
Explanation: The supraspinous ligament connects the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae along the posterior aspect of the vertebral column, providing stability.
A) Ligamentum flavum: Incorrect because the ligamentum flavum connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae, not the spinous processes.
C) Anterior longitudinal ligament: Incorrect because this ligament runs along the anterior aspect of the vertebral column, not the posterior aspect.
D) Interspinous ligament: Incorrect because the interspinous ligament connects the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae, but it runs between them, not along the posterior aspect of the vertebral column.
E) Posterior longitudinal ligament: Incorrect because this ligament runs along the posterior surface of the vertebral bodies (inside the vertebral canal), not along the spinous processes.
12. Which embryonic germ layer gives rise to the muscles of facial expression and the muscles of mastication in the head and neck region?
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) the pharyngeal arches from the endoderm
e) Paraxial mesoderm
Answer: c) Mesoderm
Explanation: The muscles of facial expression and the muscles of mastication in the head and neck region originate from the mesoderm layer via the Pharyngeal arches during embryonic development.
A) Ectoderm: Incorrect because the ectoderm primarily gives rise to the skin and nervous system, not muscles.
B) Endoderm: Incorrect because the endoderm gives rise to internal organs and linings, not muscles.
D) pharyngeal arches from the endoderm : Incorrect because whilst the muscles from the head and neck region including muscles of facial expression and muscles of mastication develop from the pharyngeal arches, the pharyngeal arches come from the mesoderm not the endoderm.
E) Paraxial mesoderm: Incorrect because while the paraxial mesoderm forms somites, which contribute to skeletal muscles, the specific muscles of facial expression and mastication originate from other parts of the mesoderm.
13. Which ligament runs along the anterior aspect of the vertebral column, connecting the vertebral bodies, and helps prevent excessive extension of the spine?
a) Ligamentum flavum
b) Supraspinous ligament
c) Anterior longitudinal ligament
d) Interspinous ligament
e) Posterior longitudinal ligament
Answer: c) Anterior longitudinal ligament
Explanation: The anterior longitudinal ligament runs along the anterior aspect of the vertebral column, connecting the vertebral bodies and providing stability by limiting excessive extension of the spine.
A) Ligamentum flavum: Incorrect because the ligamentum flavum is located on the posterior side of the vertebral column and connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae.
B) Supraspinous ligament: Incorrect because this ligament runs along the posterior tips of the spinous processes, not along the anterior aspect of the vertebral bodies.
D) Interspinous ligament: Incorrect because this ligament connects the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae, not the vertebral bodies, and is located posteriorly, not anteriorly.
E) Posterior longitudinal ligament: Incorrect because this ligament runs along the posterior aspect of the vertebral bodies, inside the vertebral canal, and helps prevent excessive flexion, not extension.
14. Which of the following structures separates the temporal bone from the parietal bone in the skull?
a) Lambdoid suture
b) Coronal suture
c) Squamous suture
d) Sphenoid bone
e) Sagittal suture
Answer: c) Squamous suture
Explanation: The squamous suture separates the temporal bone from the parietal bone in the skull.
A) Lambdoid suture: Incorrect because the lambdoid suture separates the parietal bones from the occipital bone, not the temporal bone.
B) Coronal suture: Incorrect because the coronal suture separates the frontal bone from the parietal bones, not the temporal bone.
D) Sphenoid bone: Incorrect because the sphenoid bone is located at the base of the skull and does not directly separate the temporal and parietal bones.
E) Sagittal suture: Incorrect because the sagittal suture runs along the midline of the skull, separating the two parietal bones, not the temporal bone.
15. During embryonic spine development, which structure gives rise to the vertebral bodies and intervertebral discs?
a) Sclerotome
b) Paraxial mesoderm
c) Myotome
d) Notochord
e) Somite
Answer: d) Notochord
Explanation: The notochord is a critical structure in embryonic development that gives rise to the vertebral bodies and serves as a template for the formation of intervertebral discs.
A) Sclerotome: Incorrect because the sclerotome gives rise to the vertebral bodies, but the intervertebral discs specifically develop from the notochord.
B) Paraxial mesoderm: Incorrect because the paraxial mesoderm gives rise to somites, which then differentiate into different components, such as the sclerotome. However, it is not the direct structure that gives rise to the vertebral bodies and intervertebral discs.
C) Myotome: Incorrect because the myotome forms the muscles, not the vertebral bodies or intervertebral discs.
E) Somite: Incorrect because somites are embryonic structures that form segments in the body, including the sclerotome, myotome and dermatome, but the notochord is the specific precursor to the intervertebral discs.
16 Which of the following structures is NOT a major landmark of the bones of the shoulder?
a) Acromion process
b) Glenoid fossa
c) Radial head
d) Coracoid process
e) Greater tubercle
Answer: c) Radial head
Explanation: The radial head is not a landmark of the bones of the shoulder. It is part of the elbow joint and articulates with the capitulum of the humerus, contributing to forearm movements. The other options, such as the acromion process, glenoid fossa, coracoid process, and greater tubercle, are indeed important landmarks associated with the shoulder. The shoulder joint (glenohumeral joint) is formed from the humerus, scapula and clavicle therefore the radial head is clearly not the landmark.
A) Acromion process: Incorrect because the acromion process is a prominent part of the scapula and is a major landmark in the shoulder.
B) Glenoid fossa: Incorrect because the glenoid fossa is part of the scapula where the humerus articulates, making it a key landmark in the shoulder joint.
D) Coracoid process: Incorrect because the coracoid process is a bony projection on the scapula that serves as a major landmark in the shoulder.
E) Greater tubercle: Incorrect because the greater tubercle is a bony prominence on the humerus, serving as a key attachment point for shoulder muscles and a major landmark in the shoulder.
17. Which of the following best describes the relationship between joint structure and range of movement in the shoulder joint?
a) The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint, allowing for a limited range of movement.
b) The shoulder joint is a hinge joint, limiting movement to flexion and extension.
c) The shoulder joint is a pivot joint, enabling rotational movements.
d) The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint, allowing for a wide range of movement.
e) The shoulder joint is a saddle joint, permitting multi-axial movements.
Answer: d) The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint, allowing for a wide range of movement.
Explanation: The shoulder joint (glenohumeral joint) is a ball-and-socket joint, which provides a wide range of movement, including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation.
A) The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint, allowing for a limited range of movement: Incorrect because, although the shoulder is a ball-and-socket joint, it allows for a very wide range of movement, not a limited range.
B) The shoulder joint is a hinge joint, limiting movement to flexion and extension: Incorrect because the shoulder is not a hinge joint. Hinge joints, like the elbow, allow only flexion and extension, but the shoulder has much greater mobility.
C) The shoulder joint is a pivot joint, enabling rotational movements: Incorrect because a pivot joint, like the atlanto-axial joint, allows for rotation, but the shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint, which allows for a greater variety of movements.
E) The shoulder joint is a saddle joint, permitting multi-axial movements: Incorrect because the shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint, not a saddle joint. Saddle joints, like the thumb joint, allow for specific movements but do not offer the same range of motion as a ball-and-socket joint.
18. Which of the following muscles is NOT a part of the rotator cuff in the shoulder?
a) Supraspinatus
b) Infraspinatus
c) Teres major
d) Subscapularis
e) Teres minor
Answer: c) Teres major
Explanation: The teres major is not part of the rotator cuff. The rotator cuff consists of the Supraspinatus, infraspinatus, Teres minor muscles and Subscapularis, which stabilise the shoulder joint. (tip Remember SITS)
A) Supraspinatus: Incorrect because the supraspinatus is one of the four muscles that make up the rotator cuff, which stabilizes the shoulder joint and is responsible for first 15 degrees of adduction
B) Infraspinatus: Incorrect because the infraspinatus is also one of the four rotator cuff muscles involved in shoulder stabilization and is responsible for lateral rotation
D) Subscapularis: Incorrect because the subscapularis is another rotator cuff muscle that helps stabilize the shoulder and is responsible for first lateral rotation
E) Teres minor: Incorrect because the teres minor is the fourth muscle that makes up the rotator cuff, stabilizing the shoulder joint and is responsible for medial rotation
19. Which compartment of the arm contains the brachialis muscle and primarily functions in elbow flexion?
a) Anterior compartment
b) Posterior compartment
c) Medial compartment
d) Lateral compartment
e) Superficial compartment
Answer: a) Anterior compartment (flexor compartment)
Explanation: The anterior compartment of the arm contains the brachialis muscle and is primarily responsible for elbow flexion.
B) Posterior compartment: Incorrect because the posterior compartment of the arm contains the triceps brachii muscle, which is responsible for elbow extension, not flexion.
C) Medial compartment: Incorrect because there is no “medial compartment” in the arm. The arm is typically divided into anterior (flexor) and posterior (extensor) compartments.
D) Lateral compartment: Incorrect because, anatomically, the arm does not have a “lateral compartment.” The anterior compartment, which contains the brachialis muscle, is responsible for elbow flexion.
E) Superficial compartment: Incorrect because this term does not accurately describe a specific anatomical compartment of the arm. The brachialis is located in the anterior compartment, not a “superficial compartment.”
20. Which muscle, located in the posterior compartment of the arm is responsible for forearm extension?
a) Biceps brachii
b) Brachialis
c) Triceps brachii
d) Flexor carpi radialis
e) Extensor carpi ulnaris
Answer: c) Triceps brachii
Explanation: The triceps brachii, located in the posterior compartment of the arm is responsible for forearm extension.
A) Biceps brachii: Incorrect because the biceps brachii is located in the anterior compartment of the arm and is responsible for forearm flexion, not extension.
B) Brachialis: Incorrect because the brachialis is also located in the anterior compartment of the arm and functions in elbow flexion, not extension.
D) Flexor carpi radialis: Incorrect because this muscle is located in the anterior forearm and is responsible for flexing and abducting the wrist, not extending the forearm.
E) Extensor carpi ulnaris: Incorrect because this muscle is located in the posterior forearm and is responsible for extending and adducting the wrist, not extending the forearm.
21. Which nerve arises from the brachial plexus and supplies the intrinsic hand muscles, contributing to fine motor control and dexterity?
a) Ulnar nerve
b) Median nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Musculocutaneous nerve
e) Axillary nerve
Answer: b) Median nerve
Explanation: The median nerve arises from the brachial plexus and supplies the intrinsic hand muscles especially in the thumb and the first 2 fingers, playing a crucial role in fine motor control and dexterity.
a) Ulnar nerve (Incorrect): The ulnar nerve does supply some intrinsic hand muscles, especially those controlling the little finger and part of the ring finger, but the majority of fine motor control and dexterity in the hand is attributed to the median nerve, particularly in the thumb and first two fingers.
c) Radial nerve (Incorrect): The radial nerve supplies the extensor muscles of the posterior forearm and hand but does not innervate the intrinsic hand muscles responsible for fine motor control.
d) Musculocutaneous nerve (Incorrect): The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the muscles of the anterior arm (Biceps brachii, Brachialis, and Coracobrachialis) and does not supply any of the intrinsic hand muscles.
e) Axillary nerve (Incorrect): The axillary nerve innervates muscles in the shoulder (deltoid and teres minor) and does not contribute to hand muscle function.
22. Which bone in the shoulder girdle articulates with the clavicle and forms the acromioclavicular joint?
a) Humerus
b) Scapula
c) Sternum
d) Radius
e) Ulna
Answer: b) Scapula
Explanation: The acromioclavicular joint is formed by the articulation of the scapula and the clavicle in the shoulder girdle. As the acromion is located on the scapula
a) Humerus (Incorrect): The humerus articulates with the scapula at the glenohumeral joint, not the acromioclavicular joint, which involves the scapula and clavicle.
c) Sternum (Incorrect): The sternum forms a joint with the clavicle at the sternoclavicular joint, not the acromioclavicular joint.
d) Radius (Incorrect): The radius is a bone in the forearm and does not articulate with the clavicle or scapula.
e) Ulna (Incorrect): The ulna is another forearm bone and is not involved in the shoulder girdle or acromioclavicular joint.
23. In surface anatomy, the sulcus between the biceps brachii and the triceps brachii is commonly known as the:
a) Cubital fossa
b) Intertubercular sulcus
c) Deltoid tuberosity
d) Radial groove
e) Antecubital fossa
Answer: b) Intertubercular sulcus
Explanation: The sulcus ( groove or fissure) between the biceps brachii and the triceps brachii is often referred to as the intertubercular sulcus or the intertubercular groove, which houses the long head of the biceps tendon.
a) Cubital fossa (Incorrect): The cubital fossa is a triangular depression located on the anterior aspect of the elbow, not the groove between the biceps and triceps brachii.
c) Deltoid tuberosity (Incorrect): The deltoid tuberosity is a bony prominence on the humerus where the deltoid muscle attaches, not a sulcus or groove.
d) Radial groove (Incorrect): The radial groove is located on the posterior aspect of the humerus and contains the radial nerve. It is not the sulcus between the biceps and triceps brachii.
e) Antecubital fossa (Incorrect): The antecubital fossa is another term for the cubital fossa, which is a depression on the anterior side of the elbow, not a sulcus between the biceps and triceps.
24. Which major muscle of the anterior compartment of the arm is responsible for supination of the forearm when its tendon wraps around the radius?
a) Biceps brachii
b) Brachialis
c) Brachioradialis
d) Pronator teres
e) Flexor digitorum superficialis
Answer: a) Biceps brachii
Explanation: The biceps brachii muscle is responsible for supination of the forearm when its tendon wraps around the radius.
b) Brachialis (Incorrect): The brachialis is a primary flexor of the elbow but does not contribute to forearm supination.
c) Brachioradialis (Incorrect): The brachioradialis assists with elbow flexion and also supinates,
d) Pronator teres (Incorrect): The pronator teres muscle is involved in pronation of the forearm, not supination.
e) Flexor digitorum superficialis (Incorrect): This muscle is responsible for flexing the fingers and does not play a role in supination of the forearm.
25. Which nerve, originating from the brachial plexus, supplies the extensor muscles of the forearm and is responsible for wrist and finger extension?
a) Ulnar nerve
b) Median nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Musculocutaneous nerve
e) Axillary nerve
Answer: c) Radial nerve
Explanation: The radial nerve, arising from the brachial plexus, supplies the extensor muscles of the forearm and is responsible for wrist and finger extension.
a) Ulnar nerve (Incorrect): The ulnar nerve innervates muscles in the forearm and hand that are involved in flexion, not extension, and does not supply the extensor muscles.
b) Median nerve (Incorrect): The median nerve innervates muscles involved in forearm supination and wrist and finger flexion, not extension.
d) Musculocutaneous nerve (Incorrect): The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the flexor muscles of the anterior arm and does not contribute to wrist or finger extension.
e) Axillary nerve (Incorrect): The axillary nerve primarily innervates the deltoid and teres minor muscles in the shoulder, not the extensor muscles of the forearm.
26. Which of the following muscles, located in the anterior compartment of the arm, is responsible for forearm supination when the elbow is flexed?
a) Brachialis
b) Brachioradialis
c) Biceps brachii
d) supinator
e) Flexor carpi ulnaris
Answer: c) Biceps brachii
Explanation: The biceps brachii, located in the anterior compartment of the arm, is responsible for forearm supination when the elbow is flexed.
a) Brachialis (Incorrect): The brachialis muscle is involved in elbow flexion, not forearm supination.
b) Brachioradialis (Incorrect): The brachioradialis muscle assists in forearm flexion and can help with supination, but it is not the primary muscle responsible for this action.
d) Supinator (Incorrect): while The supinator muscle contributes to forearm supination, it is more effective when the forearm is extended. The biceps brachii is a more powerful supinator during flexion.
e) Flexor carpi ulnaris (Incorrect): The flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is responsible for flexing and adducting the wrist and does not contribute to forearm supination.
27. The anatomical snuffbox, a triangular depression on the lateral aspect of the wrist, is formed by the tendons of which muscles?
a) Extensor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus
b) Flexor carpi radialis and flexor carpi ulnaris
c) Pronator teres and pronator quadratus
d) Palmaris longus and flexor digitorum superficialis
e) Flexor pollicis longus and flexor pollicis brevis
Answer: a) Extensor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus
Explanation: The anatomical snuffbox is formed by the tendons of the extensor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus muscles and is a useful anatomical landmark.
b) Flexor carpi radialis and flexor carpi ulnaris (Incorrect): These muscles are on the flexor (anterior) side of the forearm and do not form the anatomical snuffbox, which is on the extensor (posterior) side.
c) Pronator teres and pronator quadratus (Incorrect): These muscles are involved in forearm pronation, not in forming the anatomical snuffbox.
d) Palmaris longus and flexor digitorum superficialis (Incorrect): These muscles are on the flexor side of the forearm and are not associated with the anatomical snuffbox.
e) Flexor pollicis longus and flexor pollicis brevis (Incorrect): These muscles flex the thumb and are located on the palmar side of the hand, not the extensor side where the anatomical snuffbox is located.
28. Which major muscle of the back, located in the posterior compartment, is responsible for adduction and extension of the arm and is commonly known as the “swimmer’s muscle”?
a) Biceps brachii
b) Triceps brachii
c) Brachialis
d) Latissimus dorsi
e) Teres major
Answer: d) Latissimus dorsi
Explanation: The latissimus dorsi muscle, often referred to as the “swimmer’s muscle,” is responsible for adduction and extension of the arm.
a) Biceps brachii (Incorrect): The biceps brachii is located in the anterior compartment of the arm and is responsible for forearm flexion and supination, not adduction or extension of the arm.
b) Triceps brachii (Incorrect): While the triceps brachii is involved in extension of the forearm at the elbow, it is not the muscle referred to as the “swimmer’s muscle.” The latissimus dorsi is more associated with arm adduction and extension.
c) Brachialis (Incorrect): The brachialis muscle is involved in elbow flexion, not arm adduction or extension.
e) Teres major (Incorrect): Although the teres major assists in arm adduction and extension, it is not as prominent in these movements as the latissimus dorsi, which is referred to as the “swimmer’s muscle.”
29. Which ligament holds the head of the radius in place, allowing it to rotate during pronation and supination movements of the forearm?
a) Radial collateral ligament
b) Ulnar collateral ligament
c) Annular ligament
d) Palmar radiocarpal ligament
e) Transverse carpal ligament
Answer: c) Annular ligament
Explanation: The annular ligament encircles the head of the radius, holding it in place within the radial notch of the ulna. This ligament enables the head of the radius to rotate during pronation and supination movements of the forearm, contributing to its pivotal role in these actions.
a) Radial collateral ligament (Incorrect): This ligament provides lateral stability to the elbow joint but does not encircle the head of the radius or contribute directly to rotation during pronation and supination. It connects the radius to the humerus
b) Ulnar collateral ligament (Incorrect): This ligament provides medial stability to the elbow joint and is not involved in holding the radius in place during rotation. It connects the ulnar to the humeras
d) Palmar radiocarpal ligament (Incorrect): This ligament is located in the wrist and helps stabilize the carpal bones, not the radius.
e) Transverse carpal ligament (Incorrect): This ligament, also located in the wrist, forms the roof of the carpal tunnel and does not involve the head of the radius or forearm rotation.
30. Which of the following structures is NOT a major landmark of the humerus bone in the upper limb?
a) Medial epicondyle
b) Olecranon process
c) Surgical neck
d) Trochlea
e) Head of the humerus
Answer: b) Olecranon process
Explanation: The olecranon process is not a landmark of the humerus bone. Instead, it is part of the ulna and forms the bony prominence of the elbow.
a) Medial epicondyle (Incorrect): The medial epicondyle is a prominent bony landmark of the humerus, located on the distal end, and serves as an attachment point for muscles.
c) Surgical neck (Incorrect): The surgical neck of the humerus is a constricted area just below the head and is a common site of fractures.
d) Trochlea (Incorrect): The trochlea is a structure on the distal end of the humerus that articulates with the ulna.
e) Head of the humerus (Incorrect): The head of the humerus forms part of the shoulder joint and is a major anatomical landmark of the humerus.
31. The cubital fossa is bounded by which of the following structures?
a) Radial nerve, brachial artery, ulnar artery
b) Biceps brachii, brachioradialis, and brachialis muscles
c) Biceps brachii tendon, brachial artery, and median nerve
d) Ulnar collateral ligament, radial collateral ligament, and annular ligament
e) Brachial artery, median nerve, and pronator teres
Answer: c) Biceps brachii tendon, brachial artery, and median nerve
Explanation: The cubital fossa is bounded by the biceps brachii tendon (superiorly), brachial artery (medially), and median nerve (laterally). The cubital fossa contains from the Lateral → Medial direction Radial nerve, Biceps brachii Tendon, Brachial Artery and Median Nerve remember it by the followin Really Need Beer To Be At My Nicest OR For my Muslims: Really Need Bae To Be At My Nikkah
a) Radial nerve, brachial artery, ulnar artery (Incorrect): These structures are related to the region but do not define the boundaries of the cubital fossa. The radial nerve lies lateral to the fossa, and the ulnar artery is not a key boundary marker.
b) Biceps brachii, brachioradialis, and brachialis muscles (Incorrect): While the biceps brachii and brachioradialis muscles are involved in the boundaries, the brachialis muscle does not form a distinct boundary of the cubital fossa.
d) Ulnar collateral ligament, radial collateral ligament, and annular ligament (Incorrect): These ligaments are associated with the elbow joint but do not form the boundaries of the cubital fossa.
e) Brachial artery, median nerve, and pronator teres (Incorrect): Although the brachial artery and median nerve are within the cubital fossa, the pronator teres does not specifically define the boundary of the fossa.
32. Which of the following movements primarily occur at the elbow joint?
a) Flexion and extension
b) Pronation and supination
c) Abduction and adduction
d) Circumduction
e) Inversion and eversion
Answer: a) Flexion and extension
Explanation: The elbow joint is a hinge joint that primarily allows for flexion (bending) and extension (straightening) movements of the forearm.
b) Pronation and supination (Incorrect): Pronation and supination occur at the proximal and distal radioulnar joints (these are pivot joints), not primarily at the elbow joint.
c) Abduction and adduction (Incorrect): Abduction and adduction refer to movements typically associated with the ball and socket shoulder joint, not the elbow joint.
d) Circumduction (Incorrect): Circumduction is a circular movement involving multiple planes and is seen in joints like the shoulder or hip, not at the elbow.
e) Inversion and eversion (Incorrect): These movements refer to the foot and ankle joint, not the elbow.
33. Which muscle in the forearm is responsible for flexing the wrist and is a prime mover in gripping actions?
a) Flexor carpi radialis
b) Brachioradialis
c) Flexor carpi ulnaris
d) Extensor carpi radialis longus
e) Pronator teres
Answer: a) Flexor carpi radialis
Explanation: The flexor carpi radialis muscle is responsible for flexing the wrist and plays a key role in gripping actions.
b) Brachioradialis (Incorrect): The brachioradialis is primarily responsible for flexing the forearm at the elbow, not flexing the wrist or gripping.
c) Flexor carpi ulnaris (Incorrect): While this muscle does flex the wrist, it is more involved in ulnar deviation than gripping.
d) Extensor carpi radialis longus (Incorrect): This muscle extends the wrist and aids in radial deviation, not flexion or gripping.
e) Pronator teres (Incorrect): This muscle is involved in pronating the forearm, not flexing the wrist or gripping.
34. Which artery is the major blood supply to the forearm and hand, arising from the brachial artery in the cubital fossa?
a) Radial artery
b) Ulnar artery
c) median cubital vein
d) Axillary artery
e) Subclavian artery
Answer: b) Ulnar artery
Explanation: The ulnar artery is a major blood supply to the forearm and medial part of the hand, arising from the brachial artery in the cubital fossa and providing important vascular support to this region.
a) Radial artery (Incorrect): Although the radial artery also arises from the brachial artery it supplies the lateral aspect of the forearm and hand, the ulnar artery is the artery which supplies the medial aspect of forearm and hand
c) Median cubital vein (Incorrect): This is a vein, not an artery, and is commonly used for venipuncture but does not supply blood to the forearm or hand.
d) Axillary artery (Incorrect): The axillary artery is located in the armpit region and becomes the brachial artery as it descends into the arm. It does not directly supply the forearm and hand.
e) Subclavian artery (Incorrect): The subclavian artery gives rise to the axillary artery, but it is located higher up, near the clavicle, and does not directly supply the forearm and hand.
35. Which nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the lateral aspect of the hand, including the thumb, and motor innervation of the thenar muscles?
a) Radial nerve
b) Ulnar nerve
c) Median nerve
d) Brachial plexus
e) Musculocutaneous nerve
Answer: c) Median nerve
Explanation: The median nerve provides sensory innervation to the lateral aspect of the hand, including the thumb, and motor innervation to the thenar muscles, contributing to thumb movements and sensation.
a) Radial nerve (Incorrect): While the radial nerve provides sensation to the dorsum/posterior of the hand and controls the extensor muscles, it does not innervate the thenar muscles.
b) Ulnar nerve (Incorrect): The ulnar nerve provides sensory innervation to the medial aspect of the hand, not the lateral aspect.
d) Brachial plexus (Incorrect): The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that give rise to the median, radial, and ulnar nerves but is not directly responsible for innervation itself.
e) Musculocutaneous nerve (Incorrect): This nerve supplies the muscles in the anterior compartment of the arm but does not provide innervation to the thenar muscles or the lateral aspect of the hand.
36. Which bone of the forearm is responsible for forming the prominent point of the elbow, known as the olecranon process?
a) Humerus
b) Radius
c) Ulna
d) Scaphoid
e) Lunate
Answer: c) Ulna
Explanation: The olecranon process, forming the prominent point of the elbow, is a part of the ulna bone in the forearm.
a) Humerus (Incorrect): The humerus is the bone of the upper arm and does not form the olecranon process, which is part of the ulna.
b) Radius (Incorrect): The radius is the lateral bone of the forearm and does not form the olecranon process.
d) Scaphoid (Incorrect): The scaphoid is a carpal bone in the wrist and does not contribute to the elbow joint.
e) Lunate (Incorrect): The lunate is also a carpal bone in the wrist and does not form the olecranon process.
37. What is the primary function of the biceps brachii muscle in the upper limb?
a) Pronation of the forearm
b) Supination of the forearm
c) Flexion of the wrist
d) Extension of the elbow
e) Adduction of the shoulder
Answer: b) Supination of the forearm
Explanation: The primary function of the biceps brachii muscle is supination of the forearm, in addition to flexing the elbow.
a) Pronation of the forearm (Incorrect): Pronation is performed by pronator muscles, not the biceps brachii.
c) Flexion of the wrist (Incorrect): The biceps brachii flexes the elbow, not the wrist.
d) Extension of the elbow (Incorrect): The biceps brachii flexes the elbow, not extends it.
e) Adduction of the shoulder (Incorrect): The biceps brachii primarily flexes and supinates, not adducts the shoulder.
38. Which muscle of the forearm is responsible for pronating the forearm and is the most powerful pronator of the forearm?
- Palmaris longus
b) Brachioradialis
c) Pronator teres
d) Supinator
e) Extensor carpi radialis longus
Answer: c) Pronator teres
Explanation: The pronator teres muscle is responsible for pronating the forearm and is the most powerful pronator of the forearm.
a) Palmaris longus (Incorrect): This muscle assists in wrist flexion, not pronation.
b) Brachioradialis (Incorrect): The brachioradialis assists in elbow flexion, not pronation.
d) Supinator (Incorrect): The supinator muscle performs the opposite action, supination, not pronation.
e) Extensor carpi radialis longus (Incorrect): This muscle extends and abducts the wrist, not pronates the forearm.
39. Which nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the ulnar aspect of the hand, including the little finger, and motor innervation of the hypothenar muscles?
a) Radial nerve
b) Median nerve
c) Ulnar nerve
d) Brachial plexus
e) Musculocutaneous nerve
Answer: c) Ulnar nerve
Explanation: The ulnar nerve provides sensory innervation to the ulnar aspect of the hand, including the little finger, and motor innervation to the hypothenar muscles (at the base of the little finger ) contributing to its function and sensation.
a) Radial nerve (Incorrect): The radial nerve innervates the posterior aspect of the forearm and hand, not the ulnar side.
b) Median nerve (Incorrect): The median nerve innervates the lateral aspect of the hand, not the ulnar side.
d) Brachial plexus (Incorrect): The brachial plexus is a network of nerves that gives rise to peripheral nerves, not directly responsible for innervating the hand.
e) Musculocutaneous nerve (Incorrect): This nerve innervates the muscles in the anterior arm, not the hand.
40. Which type of bone cell is primarily responsible for bone deposition, producing lamellar bone, and maintaining bone integrity?
a) Osteoprogenitor cell
b) Osteoblast
c) Osteoclast
d) Osteocyte
e) Chondrocyte
Answer: b) Osteoblast
Explanation: Osteoblasts are bone-forming cells that produce lamellar bone and play a crucial role in maintaining bone integrity and density.
a) Osteoprogenitor cell (Incorrect): These are precursor cells that differentiate into osteoblasts but do not directly produce bone.
c) Osteoclast (Incorrect): Osteoclasts are responsible for bone resorption, not bone deposition.
d) Osteocyte (Incorrect): Osteocytes are mature bone cells that maintain bone tissue but do not produce new bone.
e) Chondrocyte (Incorrect): Chondrocytes are cells that produce cartilage, not bone.
41. During bone deposition, what is the primary structural difference between lamellar bone and woven bone?
a) Woven bone has a random collagen orientation, while Lamellar bone has organized collagen fibers.
b) Lamellar bone is denser and contains more minerals than woven bone.
c) Lamellar bone is characterized by irregular-shaped osteocytes, while woven bone has elongated osteocytes.
d) Lamellar bone is found in the spongy bone, while woven bone is found in the compact cortical bone.
e) Lamellar bone is formed rapidly during growth, while woven bone is formed in adulthood.
Answer: a) Woven bone has a random collagen orientation, while Lamellar bone has organized collagen fibers.
Explanation: Woven bone is Also known as fibrous bone or immature bone, woven bone has a random arrangement of collagen fibers and mineral crystals. This makes it weaker and more flexible than lamellar bone, but it’s formed quickly in response to trauma or inflammation, whereas Lamellar bone has an organised regular, parallel-arrangement of collagen fibers into sheets called lamellae. This makes it stronger and stiffer than woven bone, but it’s formed more slowly. Lamellar bone is created by remodeling woven bone.
b) Lamellar bone is denser and contains more minerals than woven bone (Incorrect): The key difference is collagen organization, not density.
c) Lamellar bone is characterized by irregular-shaped osteocytes, while woven bone has elongated osteocytes (Incorrect): This is not the primary distinction between lamellar and woven bone.
d) Lamellar bone is found in the spongy bone, while woven bone is found in the compact cortical bone (Incorrect): Both types can exist in various bone areas, not strictly one or the other.
e) Lamellar bone is formed rapidly during growth, while woven bone is formed in adulthood (Incorrect): Woven bone forms rapidly during development and healing, while lamellar bone forms later on as woven bone gets remodelled.
42. What is the primary function of compact cortical bone in the skeletal system?
a) Storage of bone marrow
b) Providing strength and support to bones
c) Facilitating calcium absorption
d) Blood cell production
e) Energy storage
Answer: b) Providing strength and support to bones
Explanation: Compact cortical (dense) bone is dense and forms the outer layer of bones, providing strength and support to the skeleton.
a) Storage of bone marrow (Incorrect): Bone marrow is stored in the medullary cavity, primarily in cancellous/trabecular/spongey bone, not cortical bone.
c) Facilitating calcium absorption (Incorrect): Calcium absorption occurs in the intestines, not in compact bone.
d) Blood cell production (Incorrect): Blood cell production mainly occurs in the marrow within trabecular (spongy) bone, not compact bone.
e) Energy storage (Incorrect): Energy storage occurs in adipose tissue within bone marrow, not in compact bone itself.
43. Which protein is crucial for providing general support and tensile strength to bone tissue?
a) Elastin
b) Actin
c) Myosin
d) Collagen
e) Keratin
Answer: d) Collagen
Explanation: Collagen is a fundamental protein that provides both general support and tensile strength to bone tissue.
a) Elastin (Incorrect): Elastin provides elasticity to tissues but is not a primary structural protein in bone.
b) Actin (Incorrect): Actin is involved in muscle contraction, not bone structure.
c) Myosin (Incorrect): Myosin is also related to muscle function, not bone structure.
e) Keratin (Incorrect): Keratin is a structural protein found in skin, hair, and nails, not bone.
44. In the process of bone turnover and remodelling, what is the primary role of sex steroids, such as oestrogen and testosterone?
a) Stimulating osteoclast activity
b) Inhibiting bone resorption
c) Promoting osteoblast activity
d) Inducing osteocyte apoptosis
e) Regulating collagen synthesis
Answer: b) Inhibiting bone resorption
Explanation: Sex steroids, particularly oestrogen and testosterone, inhibit osteoclast function. This is why postmenopausal women are in risk of weaker bones as there is a decrease in production of oestrogen.
a) Stimulating osteoclast activity (Incorrect): Sex steroids inhibit osteoclast activity, reducing bone resorption.
c) Promoting osteoblast activity (Incorrect): While sex steroids do affect bone formation, their primary role is in inhibiting bone resorption.
d) Inducing osteocyte apoptosis (Incorrect): Sex steroids do not induce osteocyte apoptosis; they help maintain bone health.
e) Regulating collagen synthesis (Incorrect): Collagen synthesis is primarily regulated by other factors, not directly by sex steroids.
45. Which type of bone cell is responsible for bone resorption, breaking down and remodelling bone tissue?
a) Osteoprogenitor cell
b) Osteoblast
c) Osteocyte
d) Osteoclast
e) Fibroblast
Answer: d) Osteoclast
Explanation: Osteoclasts are bone-resorbing cells responsible for breaking down and remodelling bone tissue.
a) Osteoprogenitor cell (Incorrect): These cells differentiate into osteoblasts, not osteoclasts.
b) Osteoblast (Incorrect): Osteoblasts are involved in bone formation, not resorption.
c) Osteocyte (Incorrect): Osteocytes maintain bone tissue but do not break it down.
e) Fibroblast (Incorrect): Fibroblasts produce connective tissue fibers but are not involved in bone resorption.
46. What is the primary function of trabecular (cancellous) bone in the skeletal system?
a) Providing resistance to mechanical stress
b) Facilitating movement at joints
c) Forming the outer protective layer of bones
d) Serving as a storage site for calcium
e) Supporting blood cell production
Answer: e) Supporting blood cell production
Explanation: Trabecular (cancellous) bone is characterized by its spongy structure and is involved in supporting blood cell production in the bone marrow.
a) Providing resistance to mechanical stress (Incorrect): Compact bone provides resistance to mechanical stress, not trabecular bone.
b) Facilitating movement at joints (Incorrect): Joints and associated tissues facilitate movement, not trabecular bone.
c) Forming the outer protective layer of bones (Incorrect): Compact bone forms the outer layer of bones, not trabecular bone.
d) Serving as a storage site for calcium (Incorrect): Although bone in general stores calcium, trabecular bone is primarily involved in blood cell production.
47. Which bone cell is often referred to as the “mature bone cell” and is responsible for maintaining bone tissue and monitoring mechanical stress on bones?
a) Osteoprogenitor cell
b) Osteoblast
c) Osteoclast
d) Osteocyte
e) Osteochondroblast
Answer: d) Osteocyte
Explanation: Osteocytes are mature bone cells that play a vital role in maintaining bone tissue and responding to mechanical stress on bones. These are found in the osteons in spaces called lacunae surrounded by calcified bone matrix and are formed from osteoblasts.
a) Osteoprogenitor cell (Incorrect): These are precursor cells that develop into osteoblasts.
b) Osteoblast (Incorrect): While osteoblasts form osteocytes, Osteoblasts are immature bone cells responsible for bone formation, not maintenance.
c) Osteoclast (Incorrect): Osteoclasts are responsible for bone resorption, not maintaining bone tissue.
e) Osteochondroblast (Incorrect): These are precursor cells for cartilage and bone but are not mature bone cells.
48. What is the primary role of osteoprogenitor cells in bone tissue maintenance and repair?
a) Actively secreting collagen fibers
b) Initiating bone resorption
c) Producing new bone matrix
d) Regulating calcium homeostasis
e) Sensing mechanical stress on bone
Answer: c) Producing new bone matrix
Explanation: Osteoprogenitor cells can differentiate into osteoblasts and play a key role in producing new bone matrix during bone tissue maintenance and repair.
a) Actively secreting collagen fibers (Incorrect): Collagen secretion is primarily done by osteoblasts, not osteoprogenitor cells.
b) Initiating bone resorption (Incorrect): Bone resorption is performed by osteoclasts, not osteoprogenitor cells.
d) Regulating calcium homeostasis (Incorrect): Calcium homeostasis is mainly regulated by hormones like PTH and calcitonin, not by osteoprogenitor cells.
e) Sensing mechanical stress on bone (Incorrect): Osteocytes are the cells that sense mechanical stress, not osteoprogenitor cells.
49. In bone remodeling, which hormone plays a role in stimulating osteoclast activity, leading to increased bone resorption?
a) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
b) Calcitonin
c) Thyroid hormone
d) calcitriol
e) Oestrogen
Answer: a) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Explanation: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) plays a role in stimulating osteoclast activity, leading to increased bone resorption and calcium release.
b) Calcitonin (Incorrect): Calcitonin inhibits osteoclast activity and decreases bone resorption whilst also stimulating osteoblast function to form bone
c) Thyroid hormone (Incorrect): Thyroid hormone regulates metabolism but does not directly stimulate osteoclast activity.
d) Calcitriol (Incorrect): Calcitriol aids in calcium absorption but does not stimulate osteoclast activity.
e) Oestrogen (Incorrect): Oestrogen inhibits osteoclast activity and decreases bone resorption, not stimulates it.
50. Which bone cell type is primarily involved in regulating bone density and calcium levels in the bloodstream through bone resorption?
a) Osteoprogenitor cell
b) Osteoblast
c) Osteocyte
d) Osteoclast
e) Osteochondroblast
Answer: d) Osteoclast
Explanation: Osteoclasts are primarily involved in regulating bone density and calcium levels in the bloodstream through bone resorption.
a) Osteoprogenitor cell (Incorrect): These cells differentiate into osteoblasts but do not resorb bone.
b) Osteoblast (Incorrect): Osteoblasts are responsible for bone formation, not resorption.
c) Osteocyte (Incorrect): Osteocytes maintain bone tissue but do not participate in bone resorption.
e) Osteochondroblast (Incorrect): These cells are involved in cartilage and bone formation, not in resorbing bone.
51. What is the primary role of Vitamin D in calcium and phosphate metabolism in the musculoskeletal system?
a) Promoting calcium excretion by the kidneys
b) Enhancing calcium absorption in the intestines
c) Inhibiting osteoclast activity
d) Stimulating parathyroid hormone (PTH) production
e) Regulating phosphate reabsorption in the bones
Answer: b) Enhancing calcium absorption in the intestines
Explanation: Vitamin D plays a crucial role in enhancing calcium absorption in the intestines, which is vital for calcium and phosphate metabolism in the musculoskeletal system
a) Promoting calcium excretion by the kidneys (Incorrect): Vitamin D promotes calcium reabsorption in the kidneys, not excretion.
c) Inhibiting osteoclast activity (Incorrect): Vitamin D supports bone formation and mineralization but does not directly inhibit osteoclast activity.
d) Stimulating parathyroid hormone (PTH) production (Incorrect): Vitamin D works with PTH in calcium metabolism but does not stimulate its production, it does the opposite effect inhibiting PTH by a negative feedback system.
e) Regulating phosphate reabsorption in the bones (Incorrect): Vitamin D primarily affects phosphate absorption in the intestines, not directly in the bones.
52. Which hormone regulates the blood levels of vitamin D by controlling its activation in the kidneys and its synthesis in the skin?
a) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
b) Calcitonin
c) Thyroid hormone
d) Oestrogen
e) Growth hormone
Answer: a) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Explanation: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) regulates the blood levels of vitamin D by controlling its activation in the kidneys and its synthesis in the skin.
b) Calcitonin (Incorrect): Calcitonin lowers blood calcium levels but does not regulate vitamin D.
c) Thyroid hormone (Incorrect): Thyroid hormone primarily regulates metabolism, not vitamin D levels.
d) Oestrogen (Incorrect): Estrogen affects bone density but does not regulate vitamin D levels.
e) Growth hormone (Incorrect): Growth hormone promotes overall growth but does not regulate vitamin D activation.
53. What are the clinical consequences of severe vitamin D deficiency in adults?
a) Increased bone density
b) Rickets
c) Osteoporosis
d) Hypocalcaemia
e) Hyperphosphatemia
Answer: c) Osteoporosis
Explanation: Severe vitamin D deficiency in adults can lead to osteoporosis, characterized by weakened bones and increased susceptibility to fractures due to low bone density.
a) Increased bone density (Incorrect): Vitamin D deficiency weakens bones and does not increase bone density.
b) Rickets (Incorrect): Rickets is a condition in children, not adults.
d) Hypocalcaemia (Incorrect): While vitamin D deficiency can lead to low calcium levels, osteoporosis is a more direct consequence in adults.
e) Hyperphosphatemia (Incorrect): Vitamin D deficiency typically leads to low phosphate levels, not high levels (hyperphosphatemia).
54. What is the primary function of calcitonin in the regulation of calcium levels in the body?
a) Enhancing calcium absorption in the intestines
b) Stimulating osteoclast activity
c) Inhibiting bone resorption and lowering blood calcium levels
d) Promoting parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion
e) Facilitating calcium excretion by the kidneys
Answer: c) Inhibiting bone resorption and lowering blood calcium levels
Explanation: Calcitonin primarily functions to inhibit bone resorption by osteoclasts, leading to a decrease in blood calcium levels. It also stimulates osteoblast activity to form bone using the increased calcium levels
a) Enhancing calcium absorption in the intestines (Incorrect): This function is primarily performed by vitamin D, not calcitonin.
b) Stimulating osteoclast activity (Incorrect): Calcitonin inhibits osteoclast activity rather than stimulating it.
d) Promoting parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion (Incorrect): Calcitonin works in opposition to PTH, not by promoting its secretion.
e) Facilitating calcium excretion by the kidneys (Incorrect): While calcitonin can affect calcium excretion, its primary function is inhibiting bone resorption.
55. What is bone mineral density (BMD) a measure of, and why is it important in assessing bone health?
a) It measures bone length and is important for determining height.
b) It assesses bone strength and is important for evaluating fracture risk.
c) It measures the density of bone marrow and is important for diagnosing anemia.
d) It quantifies the mineral content of the blood and is important for calcium regulation.
e) It assesses the density of cortical bone and is important for joint stability.
Answer: b) It assesses bone strength and is important for evaluating fracture risk.
Explanation: Bone mineral density (BMD) is a measure of bone strength and is crucial for evaluating the risk of fractures, making it an important indicator of bone health.
a) It measures bone length and is important for determining height (Incorrect): BMD measures bone density, not length, and does not determine height.
c) It measures the density of bone marrow and is important for diagnosing anemia (Incorrect): BMD assesses bone tissue density, not bone marrow density.
d) It quantifies the mineral content of the blood and is important for calcium regulation (Incorrect): BMD focuses on bone tissue density, not blood mineral content.
e) It assesses the density of cortical bone and is important for joint stability (Incorrect): BMD measures both cortical and trabecular bone density and is more focused on fracture risk than joint stability.
56. What is the most common source of vitamin D in the body, specifically in response to exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light?
a) Dietary intake of vitamin D-rich foods
b) Vitamin D supplements
c) Parathyroid gland secretion
d) Synthesis in the skin
e) Absorption from the small intestine
Answer: d) Synthesis in the skin
Explanation: The most common source of vitamin D in the body is its synthesis in the skin in response to exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light.
a) Dietary intake of vitamin D-rich foods (Incorrect): While diet can provide some vitamin D, the majority is synthesized in the skin.
b) Vitamin D supplements (Incorrect): Supplements can provide vitamin D, but synthesis in the skin is the most common source.
c) Parathyroid gland secretion (Incorrect): while it does help stimulate the production of calcitriol (activated form of Vitamen D) The parathyroid gland function is to secrete PTH, not vitamin D.
e) Absorption from the small intestine (Incorrect): Absorption occurs after intake or synthesis, but the primary source is skin synthesis.
57. What condition in children results from severe vitamin D deficiency and is characterized by weakened and deformed bones?
a) Rickets
b) Osteoporosis
c) Scurvy
d) Osteoarthritis
e) Osteomalacia
Answer: a) Rickets
Explanation: Rickets is a condition in children that results from severe vitamin D deficiency, leading to weakened and deformed bones due to the softening of the bone
b) Osteoporosis (Incorrect): Osteoporosis is a condition in adults, often due to vitamin D deficiency, but it is characterized by fragile bones, not deformed bones.
c) Scurvy (Incorrect): Scurvy results from vitamin C deficiency, not vitamin D deficiency.
d) Osteoarthritis (Incorrect): Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint condition, not related to vitamin D deficiency.
e) Osteomalacia (Incorrect): Osteomalacia is the adult equivalent of rickets, characterized by soft bones, but it occurs in adults, not children.
58. What is the main function of calcitonin in the regulation of calcium levels in the body, and which gland secretes it?
a) Increasing calcium absorption in the intestines; thyroid gland
b) Inhibiting osteoclast activity and lowering blood calcium levels; thyroid gland
c) Promoting calcium reabsorption in the kidneys; parathyroid gland
d) Enhancing calcium release from bone tissue; adrenal gland
e) Regulating calcium levels in saliva; salivary glands
Answer: b) Inhibiting osteoclast activity and lowering blood calcium levels; thyroid gland
Explanation: Calcitonin functions to inhibit osteoclast activity and lower blood calcium levels. It is secreted by the thyroid gland. It also stimulates osteoblast activity.
a) Increasing calcium absorption in the intestines; thyroid gland (Incorrect): Increasing calcium absorption in the intestines is the function of Vitamin D, not calcitonin.
c) Promoting calcium reabsorption in the kidneys; parathyroid gland (Incorrect): Parathyroid hormone, not calcitonin, promotes calcium reabsorption in the kidneys.
d) Enhancing calcium release from bone tissue; adrenal gland (Incorrect): Calcitonin inhibits calcium release by reducing osteoclast activity, and it is secreted by the thyroid gland, not the adrenal gland.
e) Regulating calcium levels in saliva; salivary glands (Incorrect): Calcitonin primarily regulates blood calcium levels, not calcium levels in saliva.
59. What is the term for a condition characterized by softening of the bones due to inadequate mineralization, often caused by vitamin D deficiency in adults?
a) Rickets
b) Osteoporosis
c) Scurvy
d) Osteoarthritis
e) Osteomalacia
Answer: e) Osteomalacia
Explanation: Osteomalacia is characterized by softening of the bones due to inadequate mineralization and is often caused by vitamin D deficiency in adults.
a) Incorrect: Rickets. Rickets occurs in children due to vitamin D deficiency and leads to bone deformities, not in adults.
b) Incorrect: Osteoporosis.While Osteoporosis which involves reduced bone density and an increased risk of fractures can be due to Vitamin D deficiency, it does not lead to softening of the bone.
c) Incorrect: Scurvy. Scurvy results from a deficiency of vitamin C, not vitamin D, and leads to issues with connective tissues, not bone softening.
d) Incorrect: Osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint condition, not related to inadequate bone mineralization or vitamin D deficiency.
60. Which hormone plays a role in lowering blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclast activity and promoting calcium excretion by the kidneys?
a) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
b) Calcitonin
c) calcitriol
d) Oestrogen
e) Growth hormone
Answer: b) Calcitonin
Explanation: Calcitonin, produced by the thyroid gland, plays a role in lowering blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclast activity and promoting calcium excretion by the kidneys.
a) Incorrect: Parathyroid hormone (PTH). PTH raises blood calcium levels by stimulating osteoclast activity and promoting calcium reabsorption, the opposite of calcitonin’s effects.
c) Incorrect: Calcitriol. Calcitriol (active Vitamin D) increases calcium absorption in the intestines, not lowering blood calcium levels.
d) Incorrect: Estrogen. Estrogen helps maintain bone density by inhibiting bone resorption but does not directly lower blood calcium levels.
e) Incorrect: Growth hormone. Growth hormone stimulates growth and affects bone and muscle mass, but it does not play a direct role in lowering blood calcium levels.
61. Which specific stain is commonly used to visualize collagen fibers in connective tissue histology slides?
a) Haematoxylin and eosin (H&E)
b) Masson’s trichrome stain
c) Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain
d) Toluidine blue stain
e) Wright-Giemsa stain
Answer: b) Masson’s trichrome stain
Explanation: Masson’s trichrome stain is frequently used to highlight collagen fibres in connective tissue sections, making them appear blue.
a) Incorrect: Haematoxylin and eosin (H&E). H&E is a general-purpose stain used for many tissue types, but it does not specifically highlight collagen fibers.
c) Incorrect: Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain. PAS stain highlights carbohydrates, such as glycogen, not collagen fibers.
d) Incorrect: Toluidine blue stain. Toluidine blue stains acidic tissue components, such as nucleic acids, but it is not specific for collagen fibers.
e) Incorrect: Wright-Giemsa stain. Wright-Giemsa stain is typically used for blood smears, not connective tissue or collagen visualization.
62. What type of muscle tissue is characterized by striations, multiple nuclei, and voluntary control?
a) Smooth muscle
b) Cardiac muscle
c) Skeletal muscle
d) Elastic muscle
e) Involuntary muscle
Answer: c) Skeletal muscle
Explanation: Skeletal muscle tissue exhibits striations, contains multiple nuclei per cell, and is under voluntary control.
a) Incorrect: Smooth muscle. Smooth muscle lacks striations and is under involuntary control, unlike skeletal muscle.
b) Incorrect: Cardiac muscle. Cardiac muscle is striated and has multiple nuclei, but it is under involuntary control.
d) Incorrect: Elastic muscle. This is not a recognized category of muscle tissue.
e) Incorrect: Involuntary muscle. This term refers to both smooth and cardiac muscle, neither of which are under voluntary control.
63. In bone histology, what is the primary structural unit of compact bone, characterized by concentric rings of matrix surrounding a central canal?
a) Osteon (Haversian system)
b) Lamella
c) Osteocyte
d) Trabecula
e) Periosteum
Answer: a) Osteon (Haversian system)
Explanation: The osteon (Haversian system) is the primary structural unit of compact bone, featuring concentric rings of matrix (lamellae) surrounding a central canal (Haversian canal).
b) Incorrect: Lamella. Lamellae are the individual concentric rings of bone matrix, but they are not the primary structural unit; the osteon is.
c) Incorrect: Osteocyte. Osteocytes are bone cells embedded within the bone matrix, but they are not the primary structural unit.
d) Incorrect: Trabecula. Trabeculae are found in spongy bone, not compact bone, and do not form the structural unit of compact bone.
e) Incorrect: Periosteum. The periosteum is a dense layer of connective tissue that covers the outer surface of bones, not the structural unit of compact bone.
64. What type of cartilage is commonly found in the external ear and the epiglottis, characterized by a matrix with elastic fibres?
a) Hyaline cartilage
b) Fibrocartilage
c) Elastic cartilage
d) Articular cartilage
e) Reticular cartilage
Answer: c) Elastic cartilage
Explanation: Elastic cartilage is characterized by a matrix with elastic fibres and is commonly found in structures like the external ear and the epiglottis.
a) Incorrect: Hyaline cartilage. Hyaline cartilage is found in the nose, trachea, and joints, and does not contain elastic fibers.
b) Incorrect: Fibrocartilage. Fibrocartilage is found in intervertebral discs and the pubic symphysis, and is characterized by strong, dense collagen fibers, not elastic fibers.
d) Incorrect: Articular cartilage. Articular cartilage is a type of hyaline cartilage found in joints, and it lacks elastic fibers.
e) Incorrect: Reticular cartilage. This is not a recognized type of cartilage; the term “reticular” typically refers to a type of connective tissue, not cartilage.
65. What type of muscle tissue is characterized by intercalated discs, striations, and involuntary control?
a) Smooth muscle
b) Cardiac muscle
c) Skeletal muscle
d) Elastic muscle
e) Voluntary muscle
Answer: b) Cardiac muscle
Explanation: Cardiac muscle tissue features intercalated discs, striations, and involuntary control, making it distinct from other muscle types.
a) Incorrect: Smooth muscle. Smooth muscle lacks striations and does not have intercalated discs; it is also under involuntary control.
c) Incorrect: Skeletal muscle. Skeletal muscle has striations, but it does not have intercalated discs, and it is under voluntary control.
d) Incorrect: Elastic muscle. This is not a recognized category of muscle tissue.
e) Incorrect: Voluntary muscle. Voluntary muscle refers to skeletal muscle, which is under conscious control, unlike cardiac muscle.
66. In bone histology, what type of bone tissue is characterized by a lattice-like structure with trabeculae ?
a) Compact bone
b) Lamellar bone
c) Cancellous bone
d) Haversian bone
e) Cortical bone
Answer: c) Cancellous bone (spongy bone)
Explanation: Cancellous bone, also known as spongy bone, is characterized by a lattice-like structure with trabeculae and bone marrow spaces.
a) Incorrect: Compact bone. Compact bone is dense and organized into osteons, not a lattice-like structure with trabeculae.
b) Incorrect: Lamellar bone. Lamellar bone refers to mature bone that has organized collagen fibers but can be either compact or cancellous bone.
d) Incorrect: Haversian bone. Haversian bone is another term for compact bone, which has a dense structure, not a lattice-like one.
e) Incorrect: Cortical bone. Cortical bone is another term for compact bone, which is dense and lacks trabeculae.
67. Which type of cartilage is found in the intervertebral discs and pubic symphysis, characterized by its ability to withstand compression and tension?
a) Hyaline cartilage
b) Fibrocartilage
c) Elastic cartilage
d) Articular cartilage
e) Reticular cartilage
Answer: b) Fibrocartilage
Explanation: Fibrocartilage is found in areas that require both compression and tension resistance, such as intervertebral discs and pubic symphysis. This is the strongest type of cartilage.
a) Incorrect: Hyaline cartilage. Hyaline cartilage is found in joints, the nose, and the trachea, and is not specialised for withstanding compression and tension. This cartilage is involved in endochondral ossification.
c) Incorrect: Elastic cartilage. Elastic cartilage is found in the ear and epiglottis and is more flexible, not specialized for withstanding compression and tension.
d) Incorrect: Articular cartilage. Articular cartilage is a type of hyaline cartilage found in joints, but it is not specifically adapted to withstand significant compression and tension.
e) Incorrect: Reticular cartilage. This is not a recognized type of cartilage; the term “reticular” is typically associated with connective tissue, not cartilage.
68. What is the primary function of ligaments in the musculoskeletal system?
a) Transmitting electrical signals for muscle contraction
b) Connecting bone to bone and stabilizing joints
c) Facilitating smooth joint movements
d) connecting muscle to bone to allow flexible movements
e) Providing attachment points for muscles
Answer: b) Connecting bone to bone and stabilising joints
Explanation: Ligaments primarily function to connect bone to bone and stabilize joints, ensuring proper joint alignment and function.
a) Incorrect: Transmitting electrical signals for muscle contraction. This is the function of nerves, not ligaments.
c) Incorrect: Facilitating smooth joint movements. This function is primarily performed by synovial fluid and articular cartilage, not ligaments.
d) Incorrect: Connecting muscle to bone to allow flexible movements. This is the function of tendons, not ligaments.
e) Incorrect: Providing attachment points for muscles. Bones provide attachment points for muscles, while ligaments connect bones to stabilize joints.
69. Which type of collagen is primarily found in hyaline cartilage, and is crucial for maintaining the structural integrity of cartilage in joints?
a) Type I collagen
b) Type II collagen
c) Type III collagen
d) Type IV collagen
e) Type V collagen
Answer: b) Type II collagen
Explanation: Type II collagen is predominantly found in hyaline cartilage, where it plays a critical role in maintaining the structural integrity of cartilage within joints.
a) Incorrect: Type I collagen. Type I collagen is predominantly found in bones, skin, and tendons, not hyaline cartilage.
c) Incorrect: Type III collagen. Type III collagen is found in reticular fibers, which are present in organs like the liver and lymphoid tissues, not in hyaline cartilage. Type 3 is also found in healing ligaments and cartilage
d) Incorrect: Type IV collagen. Type IV collagen is primarily found in the basement membranes, not in cartilage.
e) Incorrect: Type V collagen. Type V collagen is involved in the regulation of the assembly of collagen fibrils and is found in tissues such as placenta and skin, not hyaline cartilage.
70. What is the primary source of cells responsible for tendon and ligament formation during development and repair?
a) Osteoblasts
b) Myocytes
c) Chondrocytes
d) Fibroblasts
e) Osteocytes
Answer: d) Fibroblasts
Explanation: Fibroblasts are the primary source of cells responsible for the formation and repair of tendons and ligaments.
a) Incorrect: Osteoblasts. Osteoblasts are responsible for bone formation, not for forming tendons and ligaments.
b) Incorrect: Myocytes. Myocytes are muscle cells and are not involved in the formation of tendons and ligaments.
c) Incorrect: Chondrocytes. Chondrocytes are responsible for cartilage formation, not for tendons and ligaments.
e) Incorrect: Osteocytes. Osteocytes are mature osteoblasts embedded in bone matrix and are not involved in tendon and ligament formation.
71. Which biomechanical property of tendons and ligaments refers to their ability to deform under a sustained load over time?
a) Viscoelasticity
b) Creep
c) Stress relaxation
d) Tensile strength
e) Elasticity
Answer: b) Creep
Explanation: Creep is the biomechanical property of tendons and ligaments that describes their ability to gradually deform under a sustained load over time.
a) Incorrect: Viscoelasticity. Viscoelasticity describes the combination of viscous and elastic properties in a material, allowing it to resist both stress and strain, but it does not specifically refer to the gradual deformation under sustained load.
c) Incorrect: Stress relaxation. Stress relaxation refers to the decrease in stress over time when a material is held at a constant strain, not the deformation under a sustained load.
d) Incorrect: Tensile strength. Tensile strength refers to the maximum load a material can withstand before breaking, not its ability to deform over time.
e) Incorrect: Elasticity. Elasticity refers to the ability to return to original shape after deformation, not to deformation under a sustained load.
72. Which type of collagen is the most abundant and widely distributed in the human body, contributing to the tensile strength of tendons and ligaments?
a) Type I collagen
b) Type II collagen
c) Type III collagen
d) Type IV collagen
e) Type V collagen
Answer: a) Type I collagen
Explanation: Type I collagen is the most abundant and widely distributed type of collagen in the human body and is a key component of tendons and ligaments, contributing to their tensile strength.
b) Incorrect: Type II collagen. Type II collagen is predominantly found in cartilage, not in tendons and ligaments.
c) Incorrect: Type III collagen. Type III collagen is found in reticular fibers, contributing to the structure of organs and tissues, but it is not the primary collagen type in tendons and ligaments.
d) Incorrect: Type IV collagen. Type IV collagen is found in basement membranes, not in tendons and ligaments.
e) Incorrect: Type V collagen. Type V collagen is involved in collagen fibril regulation and is not the main component of tendons and ligaments.
73. Which biomechanical property of tendons and ligaments refers to their ability to return to their original shape and length after being stretched or deformed?
a) Viscoelasticity
b) Creep
c) Stress relaxation
d) Tensile strength
e) Elasticity
Answer: e) Elasticity
Explanation: Elasticity is the biomechanical property that allows tendons and ligaments to return to their original shape and length after being stretched or deformed.
a) Incorrect: Viscoelasticity. Viscoelasticity refers to the combination of both viscous and elastic behaviour, but it does not specifically describe the ability to return to original shape.
b) Incorrect: Creep. Creep describes the gradual deformation of a material under sustained load, not the ability to return to its original shape.
c) Incorrect: Stress relaxation. Stress relaxation refers to the decrease in stress over time while maintaining a constant strain, not the recovery to original shape.
d) Incorrect: Tensile strength. Tensile strength is the maximum load a material can withstand before failure, not the ability to return to its original shape.
74. What type of cartilage is characterized by a dense network of elastic fibres in its matrix and is found in structures like the external ear and epiglottis?
a) Hyaline cartilage
b) Fibrocartilage
c) Elastic cartilage
d) Reticular cartilage
e) Articular cartilage
Answer: c) Elastic cartilage
Explanation: Elastic cartilage contains a dense network of elastic fibres in its matrix and is commonly found in structures that require flexibility, such as the external ear and epiglottis.
a) Incorrect: Hyaline cartilage. Hyaline cartilage contains primarily Type II collagen, not elastic fibers, and is found in joints and respiratory structures.
b) Incorrect: Fibrocartilage. Fibrocartilage contains dense collagen fibers and is found in intervertebral discs and the pubic symphysis, not the external ear or epiglottis.
d) Incorrect: Reticular cartilage. Reticular cartilage is not a recognized type of cartilage; the term “reticular” usually refers to reticular connective tissue.
e) Incorrect: Articular cartilage. Articular cartilage is a type of hyaline cartilage found on joint surfaces and lacks elastic fibers.
75. Which component of cartilage provides resistance to compression and contributes to its resilience and ability to absorb shock in weight-bearing joints?
a) Collagen fibres
b) Proteoglycans
c) Elastic fibres
d) Water
e) Chondrocytes
Answer: b) Proteoglycans
Explanation: Proteoglycans, along with water, provide resistance to compression in cartilage, contributing to its resilience and shock-absorbing properties.
a) Incorrect: Collagen fibers. Collagen fibers provide tensile strength to cartilage but do not directly contribute to resistance to compression.
c) Incorrect: Elastic fibers. Elastic fibers provide flexibility to cartilage, but they are not the main component for resistance to compression.
d) Incorrect: Water. Water is essential for cartilage hydration and shock absorption, but it works in conjunction with proteoglycans, which are the main component responsible for resistance to compression.
e) Incorrect: Chondrocytes. Chondrocytes are the cells that produce the cartilage matrix but do not directly provide resistance to compression.
76. What is the primary function of hyaline cartilage in the respiratory system, and where is it commonly found?
a) Providing strength and support to the larynx and trachea
b) Enabling smooth movement of joints within the synovial cavity
c) Forming the articular surfaces of bones in synovial joints
d) Providing elasticity and flexibility to the external ear
e) Supporting the tracheal rings and bronchi
Answer: e) Supporting the tracheal rings and bronchi
Explanation: Hyaline cartilage supports the tracheal rings and bronchi, maintaining their open structure in the respiratory system.
a) Incorrect: Providing strength and support to the larynx and trachea. While this statement is partially true, the correct and more specific answer is that hyaline cartilage supports the tracheal rings and bronchi, keeping them open.
b) Incorrect: Enabling smooth movement of joints within the synovial cavity. This describes the function of hyaline cartilage in joints, not the respiratory system.
c) Incorrect: Forming the articular surfaces of bones in synovial joints. While this is a function of hyaline cartilage, it is not its primary role in the respiratory system.
d) Incorrect: Providing elasticity and flexibility to the external ear. This is the function of elastic cartilage, not hyaline cartilage.
77. What is the primary function of epiphyseal plates in long bone growth, and when does their closure typically occur?
a) Epiphyseal plates provide longitudinal growth; they close during adulthood.
b) Epiphyseal plates provide lateral stability; they close during adolescence.
c) Epiphyseal plates provide nutrient transport; they close during infancy.
d) Epiphyseal plates provide longitudinal growth; they never close.
e) Epiphyseal plates provide blood clotting; they close during childhood.
Answer: a) Epiphyseal plates provide longitudinal growth; they close during adulthood.
Explanation: Epiphyseal plates are responsible for longitudinal bone growth and typically close during adulthood, once the longitudinal growth has ceased.
b) Incorrect: Epiphyseal plates provide lateral stability; they close during adolescence. Epiphyseal plates are responsible for longitudinal growth, not lateral stability, and they close during adulthood, not adolescence.
c) Incorrect: Epiphyseal plates provide nutrient transport; they close during infancy. Nutrient transport is not the primary function of epiphyseal plates, and they do not close during infancy.
d) Incorrect: Epiphyseal plates provide longitudinal growth; they never close. While epiphyseal plates provide longitudinal growth, this answer option is incorrect as it states it never closes, however in reality they tend to close after growth is stopped post puberty and into adulthood.
e) Incorrect: Epiphyseal plates provide blood clotting; they close during childhood. Blood clotting is not related to the function of epiphyseal plates, and they typically close during adulthood, not childhood.
78. What is the primary role of chondrocytes in the process of bone growth and development, and where are they located within the growth plate?
a) Chondrocytes produce collagen fibers; they are located in the periosteum.
b) Chondrocytes break down bone tissue; they are located in the medullary cavity.
c) Chondrocytes form blood vessels; they are located in the marrow.
d) Chondrocytes create cartilage matrix; they are located in the epiphyseal plate.
e) Chondrocytes store calcium; they are located in the articular cartilage.
Answer: d) Chondrocytes create cartilage matrix; they are located in the epiphyseal plate.
Explanation: Chondrocytes are responsible for creating the cartilage matrix within the epiphyseal plate, facilitating longitudinal bone growth.
a) Incorrect: Chondrocytes produce collagen fibers; they are located in the periosteum. Collagen fibers are produced by fibroblasts, and chondrocytes are located in the growth plate, not the periosteum.
b) Incorrect: Chondrocytes break down bone tissue; they are located in the medullary cavity. Chondrocytes do not break down bone tissue; they create cartilage matrix and are found in the epiphyseal plate, not the medullary cavity.
c) Incorrect: Chondrocytes form blood vessels; they are located in the marrow. Chondrocytes do not form blood vessels; they create cartilage matrix and are located in the epiphyseal plate, not the marrow.
e) Incorrect: Chondrocytes store calcium; they are located in the articular cartilage. Chondrocytes do not store calcium; they are responsible for cartilage matrix production and are located in the epiphyseal plate, not the articular cartilage.
79. Which hormone plays a central role in the regulation of bone growth and is produced by the anterior pituitary gland?
a) Oestrogen
b) Testosterone
c) Growth hormone (GH)
d) Thyroxine (T4)
e) Cortisol
Answer: c) Growth hormone (GH)
Explanation: Growth hormone (GH), produced by the anterior pituitary gland, is a central regulator of bone growth and overall growth in the body.
a) Incorrect: Oestrogen. Oestrogen affects bone growth and maintenance but is not produced by the anterior pituitary gland.
b) Incorrect: Testosterone. Testosterone influences bone growth but is not produced by the anterior pituitary gland.
d) Incorrect: Thyroxine (T4). Thyroxine is produced by the thyroid gland and affects metabolism but is not primarily responsible for regulating bone growth.
e) Incorrect: Cortisol. Cortisol, produced by the adrenal glands, affects bone metabolism but is not a central regulator of bone growth.
80. Which type of ossification process primarily occurs in the formation of flat bones, such as those in the skull, and involves the direct conversion of mesenchymal cells into bone tissue?
a) Endochondral ossification
b) Intramembranous ossification
c) Periosteal ossification
d) Apoptotic ossification
e) Cortical ossification
Answer: b) Intramembranous ossification
Explanation: Intramembranous ossification is the process of direct conversion of mesenchymal cells into bone tissue via mesenchymal condensation, primarily occurring in flat bones like those in the skull.
a) Incorrect: Endochondral ossification. Endochondral ossification involves the conversion of cartilage into bone and is typical for long bones, not flat bones.
c) Incorrect: Periosteal ossification. This term is not used in standard descriptions of ossification processes; intramembranous and endochondral ossification are the correct terms.
d) Incorrect: Apoptotic ossification. This term is not used in the context of ossification processes.
e) Incorrect: Cortical ossification. Cortical ossification is not a standard term in bone formation processes.
Question 81:
Which of the following statements accurately describes the blood supply to the hip joint?
A) The primary blood supply to the hip joint is derived from the femoral artery.
B) The obturator artery is the main source of blood for the hip joint.
C) The superior gluteal artery supplies the majority of blood to the hip joint.
D) The medial circumflex femoral artery is a major contributor to hip joint blood supply.
E) The popliteal artery is responsible for the primary blood supply to the hip joint.
Answer: D
Explanation: The medial circumflex femoral artery is a significant contributor to the blood supply of the hip joint. It forms an important anastomosis around the hip, providing crucial vascular support. While the femoral artery supplies structures around the hip, it is not the primary blood supply for the hip joint. The medial circumflex artery gives rise to the lateral epiphyseal artery which also supplies blood to the femoral head.
A) Incorrect: The primary blood supply to the hip joint is derived from the femoral artery. The femoral artery supplies the thigh, but the primary blood supply to the hip joint comes from other arteries, such as the medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries.
B) Incorrect: The obturator artery is the main source of blood for the hip joint. The obturator artery contributes but is not the main source of blood for the hip joint.
C) Incorrect: The superior gluteal artery supplies the majority of blood to the hip joint. The superior gluteal artery supplies the gluteal muscles rather than being the main source for the hip joint.
E) Incorrect: The popliteal artery is responsible for the primary blood supply to the hip joint. The popliteal artery supplies the knee and lower leg, not the hip joint.
Question 82:
Which of the following muscle compartments of the thigh is responsible for hip adduction?
A) Anterior compartment
B) Medial compartment
C) Posterior compartment
D) Lateral compartment
E) Superficial compartment
Answer: B
Explanation: The muscles of the medial compartment of the thigh, such as the adductor longus, adductor brevis, and adductor magnus, are primarily responsible for hip adduction. These muscles play a crucial role in moving the thigh toward the midline of the body.They also aid in medial rotation
a) Incorrect: Anterior compartment. The anterior compartment of the thigh is primarily responsible for hip flexion and knee extension, not adduction.
c) Incorrect: Posterior compartment. The posterior compartment is primarily responsible for hip extension and knee flexion, not adduction.
d) Incorrect: Lateral compartment. The lateral compartment is involved in hip abduction, not adduction.
e) Incorrect: Superficial compartment. This is not a recognized anatomical classification for thigh muscles.
Question 83:
In walking, which of the following functions is primarily attributed to the gluteus medius and minimus muscles?
A) Hip extension
B) Hip abduction and stabilization
C) Hip flexion
D)hip adduction
E) Hip external rotation
Answer : B
Explanation: The gluteus medius and minimus muscles are essential for hip abduction and stabilisation, particularly during walking. These muscles help maintain balance and prevent the pelvis from tilting excessively when one leg is off the ground during the gait cycle. This is why hip drop is common in people with weak gluteus medius.
A) Incorrect: Hip extension. Hip extension is primarily performed by the gluteus maximus, not the gluteus medius and minimus.
C) Incorrect: Hip flexion. Hip flexion is primarily performed by muscles such as the iliopsoas, not the gluteus medius and minimus.
D) Incorrect: Hip adduction. Hip adduction is primarily performed by the adductor muscles, not the gluteus medius and minimus.
E) Incorrect: Hip external rotation. The gluteus medius and minimus are more involved in hip abduction and stabilization rather than external rotation.
Question 84:
Which ligament of the hip joint plays a crucial role in its stability by attaching to the transverse acetabular ligament and the acetabular notch?
A) Iliofemoral ligament
B) Pubofemoral ligament
C) Ischiofemoral ligament
D) Ligamentum teres
E) Round ligament
Answer: B
Explanation: The pubofemoral ligament is responsible for hip joint stability and attaches to both the transverse acetabular ligament and the acetabular notch. It restricts excessive abduction and extension of the hip joint.
a) Incorrect: Iliofemoral ligament. The iliofemoral ligament attaches to the anterior inferior iliac spine and the intertrochanteric line, not the transverse acetabular ligament or acetabular notch.
c) Incorrect: Ischiofemoral ligament. The ischiofemoral ligament attaches to the ischium and the femur, not the transverse acetabular ligament or acetabular notch.
d) Incorrect: Ligamentum teres. The ligamentum teres (round ligament) attaches to the acetabular notch and the fovea of the femur but is not specifically associated with the transverse acetabular ligament.
e) Incorrect: Round ligament. The round ligament is another name for the ligamentum teres, which is involved in hip joint stability but not specifically through the transverse acetabular ligament.
Question 85:
Which of the following ligaments provides stability to the hip joint by attaching to the anterior inferior iliac spine and the intertrochanteric line of the femur?
A) Iliofemoral ligament
B) Pubofemoral ligament
C) Ischiofemoral ligament
D) Ligamentum teres
E) Round ligament
Answer : A
Explanation: The iliopsoas ligament, also known as the iliofemoral ligament, is a strong ligament that attaches to the anterior inferior iliac spine (on the ilia) and the intertrochanteric line of the femur. It plays a crucial role in preventing excessive hip extension.
b) Incorrect: Pubofemoral ligament. The pubofemoral ligament attaches to the pubic part of the pelvis and the femur, but not the anterior inferior iliac spine or intertrochanteric line.
c) Incorrect: Ischiofemoral ligament. The ischiofemoral ligament attaches to the ischium and the femur, not the anterior inferior iliac spine or intertrochanteric line.
d) Incorrect: Ligamentum teres. The ligamentum teres attaches to the acetabular notch and fovea of the femur but not to the anterior inferior iliac spine or intertrochanteric line.
e) Incorrect: Round ligament. The round ligament is another term for the ligamentum teres and does not attach to the anterior inferior iliac spine or intertrochanteric line.
Question 86:
Which muscle of the gluteal region is responsible for both hip extension and lateral rotation?
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Gluteus medius
C) Gluteus minimus
D) Piriformis
E) Obturator externus
Answer : A
Explanation: The gluteus maximus muscle primarily functions in hip extension, but it also contributes to lateral rotation of the hip when the hip is extended.
b) Incorrect: Gluteus medius. The gluteus medius is involved in hip abduction and stabilization but not in hip extension and lateral rotation.
c) Incorrect: Gluteus minimus. The gluteus minimus also contributes to hip abduction and stabilization rather than extension and lateral rotation.
d) Incorrect: Piriformis. While the piriformis muscle contributes to lateral rotation, it is not primarily responsible for hip extension.
e) Incorrect: Obturator externus. The obturator externus is involved in lateral rotation but not hip extension.
Question 87:
The obturator artery primarily supplies which compartment of the thigh?
A) Anterior compartment
B) Medial compartment
C) Posterior compartment
D) Lateral compartment
E) Superficial compartment
Answer : B
Explanation: The obturator artery primarily supplies the muscles in the medial compartment of the thigh, including the adductors.
a) Incorrect: Anterior compartment. The anterior compartment is primarily supplied by the femoral artery, not the obturator artery.
c) Incorrect: Posterior compartment. The posterior compartment is primarily supplied by the profunda femoris (deep femoral) artery, not the obturator artery.
d) Incorrect: Lateral compartment. The obturator artery does not supply the lateral compartment of the thigh.
e) Incorrect: Superficial compartment. This is not a recognized anatomical classification for thigh muscles.
Question 88:
Which of the following muscles is NOT considered a gluteal muscle?
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Gluteus medius
C) Gluteus minimus
D) Piriformis
E) Psoas major
Answer: E
Explanation: The psoas major muscle is not a part of the gluteal muscle group. It is a hip flexor that originates from the lumbar vertebrae and inserts on the femur.
a) Incorrect: Gluteus maximus. The gluteus maximus is a major gluteal muscle involved in hip extension.
b) Incorrect: Gluteus medius. The gluteus medius is another key gluteal muscle responsible for hip abduction.
c) Incorrect: Gluteus minimus. The gluteus minimus is also a gluteal muscle involved in hip abduction.
d) Incorrect: Piriformis. The piriformis is a muscle located in the gluteal region but is not classified as a gluteal muscle.
Question 89:
The primary function of the ligamentum teres in the hip joint is:
A) Hip abduction
B) Hip adduction
C) Hip extension
D) Hip flexion
E) Hip stabilization
Answer : E
Explanation: The ligamentum teres plays a crucial role in hip joint stabilization, particularly in the context of maintaining the femoral head within the acetabulum.
A) Incorrect: Hip abduction. The ligamentum teres does not play a role in hip abduction.
B) Incorrect: Hip adduction. The ligamentum teres does not contribute to hip adduction.
C) Incorrect: Hip extension. The ligamentum teres does not affect hip extension.
D) Incorrect: Hip flexion. The ligamentum teres is not involved in hip flexion.
Question 90:
Which of the following structures is formed by the fusion of the ilium, ischium, and pubis?
A) Acetabulum
B) Sacroiliac joint
C) Pubic symphysis
D) Coccygeal joint
E) Obturator foramen
Answer : A
Explanation: The acetabulum is a cup-shaped structure in the hip bone formed by the fusion of the ilium, ischium, and pubis. It serves as the socket for the femoral head, forming the hip joint.
B) Incorrect: Sacroiliac joint. The sacroiliac joint is formed between the sacrum and ilium, not by the fusion of ilium, ischium, and pubis.
C) Incorrect: Pubic symphysis. The pubic symphysis is a cartilaginous joint between the two pubic bones, not formed by the fusion of ilium, ischium, and pubis.
D) Incorrect: Coccygeal joint. The coccygeal joint is not related to the fusion of ilium, ischium, and pubis. This is a joint between the sacrum and the coccyx
E) Incorrect: Obturator foramen. The obturator foramen is a large opening in the hip bone formed by the ischium and pubis but not by the fusion of ilium, ischium, and pubis.
Question 91:
Which type of joint classification best describes the knee joint?
A) Fibrous joint
B) Cartilaginous joint
C) Synovial joint
D) Amphiarthrosis joint
E) Suture joint
Answer : C
Explanation: The knee joint is classified as a hinge joint which is a synovial joint/ diarthrosis joint. It is characterized by a synovial cavity filled with synovial fluid, allowing for a wide range of movements.
A) Incorrect: Fibrous joint. The knee joint is not a fibrous joint; it is a synovial joint.
B) Incorrect: Cartilaginous joint. The knee joint is not a cartilaginous joint; it is classified as a synovial joint.
D) Incorrect: Amphiarthrosis joint. Amphiarthrosis joints are slightly movable e.g. cartilaginous joints between vertebral bodies or the pubic symphysis , and the knee is a synovial joint allowing for more movement.
E) Incorrect: Suture joint. Suture joints are found in the skull and are immovable; the knee is a synovial joint.
Question 92:
In the knee joint, which of the following ligaments prevents excessive anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur?
A) Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
B) Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
C) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
D) Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
E) Patellar ligament
Answer: C
Explanation: The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) in the knee joint primarily prevents excessive anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur. It plays a crucial role in maintaining the joint’s stability. Note another way of wording this is for example by saying the ACL prevents excessive posterior translation of the femur relative to the tibia.
A) Incorrect: Medial collateral ligament (MCL). The MCL primarily stabilizes the knee against medial forces, not anterior translation.
B) Incorrect: Lateral collateral ligament (LCL). The LCL stabilizes the knee against lateral forces, not anterior translation.
D) Incorrect: Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL). The PCL prevents excessive posterior translation of the tibia, not anterior translation.
E) Incorrect: Patellar ligament. The patellar ligament is involved in knee extension, not preventing anterior translation.
Question 93:
Which compartment of the leg is primarily responsible for dorsiflexion and inversion of the ankle?
A) Anterior compartment
B) Lateral compartment
C) Posterior compartment
D) Medial compartment
E) Superficial compartment
Answer: A
Explanation: The anterior compartment of the leg contains the tibialis anterior muscle, which is primarily responsible for dorsiflexion and inversion of the ankle. This section is innervated by the deep fibular/peroneal nerve
B) Incorrect: Lateral compartment. The lateral compartment is primarily responsible for ankle eversion, not dorsiflexion and inversion.
C) Incorrect: Posterior compartment. While the posterior compartment does invert, its primary responsibility is plantarflexion, not dorsiflexion
D) Incorrect: Medial compartment. This compartment is not a standard classification for the leg
E) Incorrect: Superficial compartment. This is not a recognized compartment in the context of leg muscles; it does not specifically address dorsiflexion and inversion.
Question 94:
Which muscle of the lower limb primarily functions in hip flexion, lateral rotation, and abduction and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh?
A) Quadriceps femoris
B) Adductor longus
C) Sartorius
D) Gracilis
E) Tensor fasciae latae
Answer : C
Explanation: The sartorius muscle, located in the anterior compartment of the thigh, is responsible for hip flexion, lateral rotation, and abduction. It is known as the “tailor’s muscle” due to its action in the cross-legged sitting position.
A) Incorrect: Quadriceps femoris. The quadriceps femoris is primarily involved in knee extension and does not perform lateral rotation or abduction.
B) Incorrect: Adductor longus. Adductor longus is primarily responsible for adduction but also medial rotation, not hip flexion lateral rotation and abduction.
D) Incorrect: Gracilis. The gracilis is involved in hip adduction and knee flexion, not primarily in flexion of hip, lateral rotation, and abduction.
E) Incorrect: Tensor fasciae latae. While the tensor fasciae latae does contribute to hip abduction, it is not primarily responsible for lateral rotation or flexion.
Question 95:
Which of the following joints in the lower limb is classified as a hinge joint and primarily allows for flexion and extension movements?
A) Hip joint
B) Knee joint
C) Ankle joint
D) Subtalar joint
E) Sacroiliac joint
Answer : B
Explanation: The knee joint is classified as a hinge joint, primarily allowing for flexion and extension movements, similar to the hinge of a door.
A) Incorrect: Hip joint. The hip joint is a ball-and-socket joint, not a hinge joint.
C) Incorrect: Ankle joint. The ankle joint allows for dorsiflexion and plantarflexion, which are movements other than those typically described for hinge joints.
D) Incorrect: Subtalar joint. The subtalar joint is involved in inversion and eversion, not just flexion and extension.
E) Incorrect: Sacroiliac joint. The sacroiliac joint is involved in transferring weight between the upper body and the pelvis, not primarily in flexion and extension.
Question 96:
Which of the following movements is primarily associated with the subtalar joint?
A) Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion
B) Inversion and eversion
C) Flexion and extension
D) Abduction and adduction
E) Pronation and supination
Answer : B
Explanation: The subtalar joint is responsible for inversion (turning the sole of the foot inward) and eversion (turning the sole of the foot outward) movements.
A) Incorrect: Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion. These movements occur at the ankle joint, not the subtalar joint.
C) Incorrect: Flexion and extension. These movements are associated with the knee and hip joints, not the subtalar joint.
D) Incorrect: Abduction and adduction. These movements are not primary functions of the subtalar joint.
E) Incorrect: Pronation and supination. While closely related, these terms are not the primary description for subtalar joint movements.
Question 97:
In the ankle joint, the deltoid ligament primarily resists which type of force?
A) Anterior translation
B) Posterior translation
C) Inversion
D) Eversion
E) Plantarflexion
Answer : D
Explanation: The deltoid ligament in the ankle primarily resists excessive eversion forces, helping to stabilize the medial side of the ankle.
A) Incorrect: Anterior translation. The deltoid ligament does not primarily resist anterior translation forces.
B) Incorrect: Posterior translation. The deltoid ligament is not primarily responsible for resisting posterior translation forces.
C) Incorrect: Inversion. The deltoid ligament resists eversion, not inversion forces.
E) Incorrect: Plantarflexion. The deltoid ligament does not specifically resist plantarflexion forces.
Question 98:
The popliteus muscle, located in the posterior compartment of the leg, primarily functions in which of the following movements?
A) Hip flexion
B) Medial rotation
C) Ankle dorsiflexion
D) Hip abduction
E) Ankle inversion
Answer : B
Explanation: The popliteus muscle, located in the posterior compartment of the leg, primarily functions in medial rotation of the knee. It helps unlock the knee joint and initiate the bending motion of the knee. It also helps prevent over extending the knee
A) Incorrect: Hip flexion. The popliteus muscle does not perform hip flexion.
C) Incorrect: Ankle dorsiflexion. The popliteus muscle is not involved in ankle dorsiflexion.
D) Incorrect: Hip abduction. The popliteus muscle does not perform hip abduction.
E) Incorrect: Ankle inversion. The popliteus muscle does not contribute to ankle inversion.
Question 99:
Which nerve, primarily originating from the brachial plexus, innervates the muscles responsible for wrist extension and thumb abduction?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Radial nerve
D) Musculocutaneous nerve
E) Axillary nerve
Answer : C
Explanation: The radial nerve, originating from the brachial plexus, innervates the muscles responsible for wrist extension (e.g., extensor carpi radialis) and thumb abduction (e.g., abductor pollicis longus).
A) Incorrect: Ulnar nerve. The ulnar nerve primarily innervates the intrinsic muscles of the hand and does not innervate muscles responsible for wrist extension and thumb abduction.
B) Incorrect: Median nerve. The median nerve innervates muscles involved in wrist flexion and thumb opposition, but not wrist extension.
D) Incorrect: Musculocutaneous nerve. The musculocutaneous nerve primarily innervates the muscles of the anterior compartment of the arm, not wrist extensors.
E) Incorrect: Axillary nerve. The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid and teres minor muscles, not the muscles responsible for wrist extension and thumb abduction.
Question 100:
Which nerve of the lumbar plexus primarily innervates the quadriceps muscle group?
A) Femoral nerve
B) Sciatic nerve
C) Obturator nerve
D) Tibial nerve
E) Pudendal nerve
Answer 100: A
Explanation: The femoral nerve, arising from the lumbar plexus, primarily innervates the quadriceps muscle group, which is crucial for knee extension.
B) Sciatic nerve: (incorrect) The sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the body. It primarily innervates the muscles posterior thigh i.e. hamstrings.
C) Obturator nerve: (incorrect) The obturator nerve innervates the adductor muscles of the thigh, not the quadriceps.
D) Tibial nerve:(incorrect) The tibial nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve and primarily innervates the muscles of the posterior compartment of the leg responsible for inversion and plantarflexion.
E) Pudendal nerve:(incorrect) The pudendal nerve is primarily involved in the innervation of the pelvic floor muscles and external genitalia.
Question 101:
Which nerve is responsible for the motor innervation of the biceps brachii muscle and is part of the brachial plexus?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Radial nerve
D) Musculocutaneous nerve
E) Axillary nerve
Answer 101: D
Explanation: The musculocutaneous nerve, originating from the brachial plexus, provides motor innervation to the biceps brachii muscle and sensory innervation to the lateral forearm
A) Ulnar nerve: The ulnar nerve primarily innervates the muscles of the medial forearm and hand, including those involved in wrist flexion, ulnar deviation, and hand gripping.
B) Median nerve: The median nerve innervates a variety of muscles in the lateral anterior forearm and hand, including those involved in wrist flexion, supination, and finger flexion.
C) Radial nerve: The radial nerve innervates the muscles of the posterior compartment of the arm and forearm, including those involved in elbow extension, wrist extension, and finger extension.
E) Axillary nerve: The axillary nerve innervates the deltoid muscle, which is involved in shoulder abduction and external rotation.
Med Wiz 