Musculoskeletal
1. What is the primary function of the sciatic nerve?
A) Motor innervation of the biceps femoris, sartorius and semitendinosus
B) Sensory innervation of the medial thigh
C) Motor innervation of the biceps femoris, semitendinosus and semimembranosus
D) Sensory innervation of the lateral leg
E) Motor innervation of the adductor muscles
2. In the context of the musculoskeletal system, how do ligaments differ from tendons?
a) Ligaments connect bone to bone, while tendons connect muscle to bone.
b) Ligaments connect bone to bone, while tendons connect muscle to muscle.
c) Ligaments connect muscle to muscle, while tendons connect bone to muscle.
d) Ligaments and tendons have the same function but different names.
e) Ligaments and tendons are functionally identical.
3. Which of the following tissues is considered metabolically active and capable of adapting to mechanical stress?
a) Cartilage
b) Ligament
c) Tendon
d) Bone
e) Hair
4. Which joint allows for vertical movement/nodding your head “yes,” primarily enabling flexion and extension movements?
a) Atlanto-occipital joint
b) Atlanto-axial joint
c) Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)
d) occipito-axial joint
e) Sternoclavicular joint
5. Which muscle group is primarily responsible for the movements of chewing and grinding food?
a) Muscles of facial expression
b) Muscles of the tongue
c) Muscles of the pharynx
d) Muscles of ma6666stication
e) Muscles of the larynx
6. During embryonic development, which structure gives rise to the vertebral column and other skeletal components of the axial skeleton?
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Neuroectoderm
e) Germ cells
7. Which type of vertebra is characterized by a triangular-shaped vertebral foramen and serves as the primary support for the head and neck?
a) Cervical vertebra
b) Thoracic vertebra
c) Lumbar vertebra
d) Sacral vertebra
e) Coccygeal vertebra
8. Which ligament connects the axis (C2 vertebra) to the atlas (C1 vertebra) and allows for rotational movements of the head?
a) Supraspinous ligament
b) Anterior longitudinal ligament
c) Posterior longitudinal ligament
d) Transverse ligament of the atlas
e) Ligamentum flavum
9. Which of the following movements is primarily associated with the atlanto-axial joint?
a) Flexion and extension
b) Rotation
c) Lateral flexion
d) Protraction and retraction
e) Circumduction
10. Which component of the intervertebral (IV) disc is responsible for its shock-absorbing properties and resistance to compression?
a) Annulus fibrosus
b) Nucleus pulposus
c) Ligamentum flavum
d) Supraspinous ligament
e) Posterior longitudinal ligament
11. Which ligament connects the spinous processes of adjacent vertebrae and runs along the posterior aspect of the vertebral column?
a) Ligamentum flavum
b) Supraspinous ligament
c) Anterior longitudinal ligament
d) Interspinous ligament
e) Posterior longitudinal ligament
12. Which embryonic germ layer gives rise to the muscles of facial expression and the muscles of mastication in the head and neck region?
a) Ectoderm
b) Endoderm
c) Mesoderm
d) Pharyngeal arches from the endoderm
e) Paraxial mesoderm
13. Which ligament runs along the anterior aspect of the vertebral column, connecting the vertebral bodies, and helps prevent excessive extension of the spine?
a) Ligamentum flavum
b) Supraspinous ligament
c) Anterior longitudinal ligament
d) Interspinous ligament
e) Posterior longitudinal ligament
14. Which of the following structures separates the temporal bone from the parietal bone in the skull?
a) Lambdoid suture
b) Coronal suture
c) Squamous suture
d) Sphenoid bone
e) Sagittal suture
15. During embryonic spine development, which structure gives rise to the vertebral bodies and intervertebral discs?
a) Sclerotome
b) Dermatome
c) Myotome
d) Notochord
e) Somite
16. Which of the following structures is NOT a major landmark of the bones of the shoulder?
a) Acromion process
b) Glenoid fossa
c) Radial head
d) Coracoid process
e) Greater tubercle
17. Which of the following best describes the relationship between joint structure and range of movement in the shoulder joint?
a) The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint, allowing for a limited range of movement.
b) The shoulder joint is a hinge joint, limiting movement to flexion and extension.
c) The shoulder joint is a pivot joint, enabling rotational movements.
d) The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint, allowing for a wide range of movement.
e) The shoulder joint is a saddle joint, permitting multi-axial movements.
18. Which of the following muscles is NOT a part of the rotator cuff in the shoulder?
a) Supraspinatus
b) Infraspinatus
c) Teres major
d) Subscapularis
e) Teres minor
19. Which compartment of the arm contains the brachialis muscle and primarily functions in elbow flexion?
a) Anterior compartment
b) Posterior compartment
c) Medial compartment
d) Lateral compartment
e) Superficial compartment
20. Which muscle, located in the posterior compartment of the arm is responsible for forearm extension?
a) Biceps brachii
b) Brachialis
c) Triceps brachii
d) Flexor carpi radialis
e) Extensor carpi ulnaris
21. Which nerve arises from the brachial plexus and supplies the intrinsic hand muscles, contributing to fine motor control and dexterity?
a) Ulnar nerve
b) Median nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Musculocutaneous nerve
e) Axillary nerve
22. Which bone in the shoulder girdle articulates with the clavicle and forms the acromioclavicular joint?
a) Humerus
b) Scapula
c) Sternum
d) Radius
e) Ulna
23. In surface anatomy, the sulcus between the biceps brachii and the triceps brachii is commonly known as the:
a) Cubital fossa
b) Intertubercular sulcus
c) Deltoid tuberosity
d) Radial groove
e) Antecubital fossa
24. Which major muscle of the anterior compartment of the arm is responsible for supination of the forearm when its tendon wraps around the radius?
a) Biceps brachii
b) Brachialis
c) Brachioradialis
d) Pronator teres
e) Flexor digitorum superficialis
25. Which nerve, originating from the brachial plexus, supplies the extensor muscles of the forearm and is responsible for wrist and finger extension?
a) Ulnar nerve
b) Median nerve
c) Radial nerve
d) Musculocutaneous nerve
e) Axillary nerve
26. Which of the following muscles, located in the anterior compartment of the arm, is responsible for forearm supination when the elbow is flexed?
a) Brachialis
b) Brachioradialis
c) Biceps brachii
d) supinator
e) Flexor carpi ulnaris
27. The anatomical snuffbox, a triangular depression on the lateral aspect of the wrist, is formed by the tendons of which muscles?
a) Extensor pollicis brevis and extensor pollicis longus
b) Flexor carpi radialis and flexor carpi ulnaris
c) Pronator teres and pronator quadratus
d) Palmaris longus and flexor digitorum superficialis
e) Flexor pollicis longus and flexor pollicis brevis
28. Which major muscle of the back, located in the posterior compartment, is responsible for adduction and extension of the arm and is commonly known as the “swimmer’s muscle”?
a) Biceps brachii
b) Triceps brachii
c) Brachialis
d) Latissimus dorsi
e) Teres major
29. Which ligament holds the head of the radius in place, allowing it to rotate during pronation and supination movements of the forearm?
a) Radial collateral ligament
b) Ulnar collateral ligament
c) Annular ligament
d) Palmar radiocarpal ligament
e) Transverse carpal ligament
30. Which of the following structures is NOT a major landmark of the humerus bone in the upper limb?
a) Medial epicondyle
b) Olecranon process
c) Surgical neck
d) Trochlea
e) Head of the humerus
31. The cubital fossa is bounded by which of the following structures?
a) Radial nerve, brachial artery, ulnar artery
b) Biceps brachii, brachioradialis, and brachialis muscles
c) Biceps brachii tendon, brachial artery, and median nerve
d) Ulnar collateral ligament, radial collateral ligament, and annular ligament
e) Brachial artery, median nerve, and pronator teres
32. Which of the following movements primarily occur at the elbow joint?
a) Flexion and extension
b) Pronation and supination
c) Abduction and adduction
d) Circumduction
e) Inversion and eversion
33. Which muscle in the forearm is responsible for flexing the wrist and is a prime mover in gripping actions?
a) Flexor carpi radialis
b) Brachioradialis
c) Flexor carpi ulnaris
d) Extensor carpi radialis longus
e) Pronator teres
34. Which artery is the major blood supply to the forearm and medial part of hand, arising from the brachial artery in the cubital fossa?
a) Radial artery
b) Ulnar artery
c) median cubital vein
d) Axillary artery
e) Subclavian artery
35. Which nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the lateral aspect of the hand, including the thumb, and motor innervation of the thenar muscles?
a) Radial nerve
b) Ulnar nerve
c) Median nerve
d) Brachial plexus
e) Musculocutaneous nerve
36. Which bone of the forearm is responsible for forming the prominent point of the elbow, known as the olecranon process?
a) Humerus
b) Radius
c) Ulna
d) Scaphoid
e) Lunate
37. What is the primary function of the biceps brachii muscle in the upper limb?
a) Pronation of the forearm
b) Supination of the forearm
c) Flexion of the wrist
d) Extension of the elbow
e) Adduction of the shoulder
38. Which muscle of the forearm is responsible for pronating the forearm and is the most powerful pronator of the forearm?
- Palmaris longus
b) Brachioradialis
c) Pronator teres
d) Supinator
e) Extensor carpi radialis longus
39. Which nerve is responsible for sensory innervation of the ulnar aspect of the hand, including the little finger, and motor innervation of the hypothenar muscles?
a) Radial nerve
b) Median nerve
c) Ulnar nerve
d) Brachial plexus
e) Musculocutaneous nerve
40. Which type of bone cell is primarily responsible for bone deposition, producing lamellar bone, and maintaining bone integrity?
a) Osteoprogenitor cell
b) Osteoblast
c) Osteoclast
d) Osteocyte
e) Chondrocyte
41. During bone deposition, what is the primary structural difference between lamellar bone and woven bone?
a) Woven bone has a random collagen orientation, while Lamellar bone has organised collagen fibres.
b) Lamellar bone is denser and contains more minerals than woven bone.
c) Lamellar bone is characterized by irregular-shaped osteocytes, while woven bone has elongated osteocytes.
d) Lamellar bone is found in the spongy bone, while woven bone is found in the compact cortical bone.
e) Lamellar bone is formed rapidly during growth, while woven bone is formed in adulthood.
42. What is the primary function of compact cortical bone in the skeletal system?
a) Storage of bone marrow
b) Providing strength and support to bones
c) Facilitating calcium absorption
d) Blood cell production
e) Energy storage
43. Which protein is crucial for providing general support and tensile strength to bone tissue?
a) Elastin
b) Actin
c) Myosin
d) Collagen
e) Keratin
44. In the process of bone turnover and remodelling, what is the primary role of sex steroids, such as oestrogen and testosterone?
a) Stimulating osteoclast activity
b) Inhibiting bone resorption
c) Promoting osteoblast activity
d) Inducing osteocyte apoptosis
e) Regulating collagen synthesis
45. Which type of bone cell is responsible for bone resorption, breaking down and remodelling bone tissue?
a) Osteoprogenitor cell
b) Osteoblast
c) Osteocyte
d) Osteoclast
e) Fibroblast
46. What is the primary function of trabecular (cancellous) bone in the skeletal system?
a) Providing resistance to mechanical stress
b) Facilitating movement at joints
c) Forming the outer protective layer of bones
d) Serving as a storage site for calcium
e) Supporting blood cell production
47. Which bone cell is often referred to as the “mature bone cell” and is responsible for maintaining bone tissue and monitoring mechanical stress on bones?
a) Osteoprogenitor cell
b) Osteoblast
c) Osteoclast
d) Osteocyte
e) Osteochondroblast
48. What is the primary role of osteoprogenitor cells in bone tissue maintenance and repair?
a) Actively secreting collagen fibers
b) Initiating bone resorption
c) Producing new bone matrix
d) Regulating calcium homeostasis
e) Sensing mechanical stress on bone
49. In bone remodeling, which hormone plays a role in stimulating osteoclast activity, leading to increased bone resorption?
a) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
b) Calcitonin
c) Thyroid hormone
d) calcitriol
e) Estrogen
50. Which bone cell type is primarily involved in regulating bone density and calcium levels in the bloodstream through bone resorption?
a) Osteoprogenitor cell
b) Osteoblast
c) Osteocyte
d) Osteoclast
e) Osteochondroblast
51. What is the primary role of Vitamin D in calcium and phosphate metabolism in the musculoskeletal system?
a) Promoting calcium excretion by the kidneys
b) Enhancing calcium absorption in the intestines
c) Inhibiting osteoclast activity
d) Stimulating parathyroid hormone (PTH) production
e) Regulating phosphate reabsorption in the bones
52. Which hormone regulates the blood levels of vitamin D by controlling its activation in the kidneys and its synthesis in the skin?
a) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
b) Calcitonin
c) Thyroid hormone
d) Oestrogen
e) Growth hormone
53. What are the clinical consequences of severe vitamin D deficiency in adults?
a) Increased bone density
b) Rickets
c) Osteoporosis
d) Hypocalcaemia
e) Hyperphosphatemia
54. What is the primary function of calcitonin in the regulation of calcium levels in the body?
a) Enhancing calcium absorption in the intestines
b) Stimulating osteoclast activity
c) Inhibiting bone resorption and lowering blood calcium levels
d) Promoting parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion
e) Facilitating calcium excretion by the kidneys
55. What is bone mineral density (BMD) a measure of, and why is it important in assessing bone health?
a) It measures bone length and is important for determining height.
b) It assesses bone strength and is important for evaluating fracture risk.
c) It measures the density of bone marrow and is important for diagnosing anemia.
d) It quantifies the mineral content of the blood and is important for calcium regulation.
e) It assesses the density of cortical bone and is important for joint stability.
56. What is the most common source of vitamin D in the body, specifically in response to exposure to ultraviolet (UV) light?
a) Dietary intake of vitamin D-rich foods
b) Vitamin D supplements
c) Parathyroid gland secretion
d) Synthesis in the skin
e) Absorption from the small intestine
57. What condition in children results from severe vitamin D deficiency and is characterized by weakened and deformed bones?
a) Rickets
b) Osteoporosis
c) Scurvy
d) Osteoarthritis
e) Osteomalacia
58. What is the main function of calcitonin in the regulation of calcium levels in the body, and which gland secretes it?
a) Increasing calcium absorption in the intestines; thyroid gland
b) Inhibiting osteoclast activity and lowering blood calcium levels; thyroid gland
c) Promoting calcium reabsorption in the kidneys; parathyroid gland
d) Enhancing calcium release from bone tissue; adrenal gland
e) Regulating calcium levels in saliva; salivary glands
59. What is the term for a condition characterized by softening of the bones due to inadequate mineralization, often caused by vitamin D deficiency in adults?
a) Rickets
b) Osteoporosis
c) Scurvy
d) Osteoarthritis
e) Osteomalacia
60. Which hormone plays a role in lowering blood calcium levels by inhibiting osteoclast activity and promoting calcium excretion by the kidneys?
a) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
b) Calcitonin
c) calcitriol
d) Oestrogen
e) Growth hormone
61. Which specific stain is commonly used to visualize collagen fibers in connective tissue histology slides?
a) Haematoxylin and eosin (H&E)
b) Masson’s trichrome stain
c) Periodic acid-Schiff (PAS) stain
d) Toluidine blue stain
e) Wright-Giemsa stain
62. What type of muscle tissue is characterized by striations, multiple nuclei, and voluntary control?
a) Smooth muscle
b) Cardiac muscle
c) Skeletal muscle
d) Elastic muscle
e) Involuntary muscle
63. In bone histology, what is the primary structural unit of compact bone, characterized by concentric rings of matrix surrounding a central canal?
a) Osteon
b) Lamella
c) Osteocyte
d) Trabecula
e) Periosteum
64. What type of cartilage is commonly found in the external ear and the epiglottis, characterized by a matrix with elastic fibres?
a) Hyaline cartilage
b) Fibrocartilage
c) Elastic cartilage
d) Articular cartilage
e) Reticular cartilage
65. What type of muscle tissue is characterized by intercalated discs, striations, and involuntary control?
a) Smooth muscle
b) Cardiac muscle
c) Skeletal muscle
d) Elastic muscle
e) Voluntary muscle
66. In bone histology, what type of bone tissue is characterized by a lattice-like structure with trabeculae?
a) Compact bone
b) Lamellar bone
c) Cancellous bone
d) Haversian bone
e) Cortical bone
67. Which type of cartilage is found in the intervertebral discs and pubic symphysis, characterized by its ability to withstand compression and tension?
a) Hyaline cartilage
b) Fibrocartilage
c) Elastic cartilage
d) Articular cartilage
e) Reticular cartilage
68. What is the primary function of ligaments in the musculoskeletal system?
a) Transmitting electrical signals for muscle contraction
b) Connecting bone to bone and stabilizing joints
c) Facilitating smooth joint movements
d) connecting muscle to bone to allow flexible movements
e) Providing attachment points for muscles
69. Which type of collagen is primarily found in hyaline cartilage, and is crucial for maintaining the structural integrity of cartilage in joints?
a) Type I collagen
b) Type II collagen
c) Type III collagen
d) Type IV collagen
e) Type V collagen
70. What is the primary source of cells responsible for tendon and ligament formation during development and repair?
a) Osteoblasts
b) Myocytes
c) Chondrocytes
d) Fibroblasts
e) Osteocytes
71. Which biomechanical property of tendons and ligaments refers to their ability to deform under a sustained load over time?
a) Viscoelasticity
b) Creep
c) Stress relaxation
d) Tensile strength
e) Elasticity
72. Which type of collagen is the most abundant and widely distributed in the human body, contributing to the tensile strength of tendons and ligaments?
a) Type I collagen
b) Type II collagen
c) Type III collagen
d) Type IV collagen
e) Type V collagen
73. Which biomechanical property of tendons and ligaments refers to their ability to return to their original shape and length after being stretched or deformed?
a) Viscoelasticity
b) Creep
c) Stress relaxation
d) Tensile strength
e) Elasticity
74. What type of cartilage is characterized by a dense network of elastic fibres in its matrix and is found in structures like the external ear and epiglottis?
a) Hyaline cartilage
b) Fibrocartilage
c) Elastic cartilage
d) Reticular cartilage
e) Articular cartilage
75. Which component of cartilage provides resistance to compression and contributes to its resilience and ability to absorb shock in weight-bearing joints?
a) Collagen fibres
b) Proteoglycans
c) Elastic fibres
d) Water
e) Chondrocytes
76. What is the primary function of hyaline cartilage in the respiratory system, and where is it commonly found?
a) Providing strength and support to the larynx and trachea
b) Enabling smooth movement of joints within the synovial cavity
c) Forming the articular surfaces of bones in synovial joints
d) Providing elasticity and flexibility to the external ear
e) Supporting the tracheal rings and bronchi
77. What is the primary function of epiphyseal plates in long bone growth, and when does their closure typically occur?
a) Epiphyseal plates provide longitudinal growth; they close during adulthood.
b) Epiphyseal plates provide lateral stability; they close during adolescence.
c) Epiphyseal plates provide nutrient transport; they close during infancy.
d) Epiphyseal plates provide longitudinal growth; they never close.
e) Epiphyseal plates provide blood clotting; they close during childhood.
78. What is the primary role of chondrocytes in the process of bone growth and development, and where are they located within the growth plate?
a) Chondrocytes produce collagen fibers; they are located in the periosteum.
b) Chondrocytes break down bone tissue; they are located in the medullary cavity.
c) Chondrocytes form blood vessels; they are located in the marrow.
d) Chondrocytes create a cartilage matrix; they are located in the epiphyseal plate.
e) Chondrocytes store calcium; they are located in the articular cartilage.
79. Which hormone plays a central role in the regulation of bone growth and is produced by the anterior pituitary gland?
a) Oestrogen
b) Testosterone
c) Growth hormone (GH)
d) Thyroxine (T4)
e) Cortisol
80. Which type of ossification process primarily occurs in the formation of flat bones, such as those in the skull, and involves the direct conversion of mesenchymal cells into bone tissue?
a) Endochondral ossification
b) Intramembranous ossification
c) Periosteal ossification
d) Apoptotic ossification
e) Cortical ossification
Question 81:
Which of the following statements accurately describes the blood supply to the hip joint?
A) The primary blood supply to the hip joint is derived from the femoral artery.
B) The obturator artery is the main source of blood for the hip joint.
C) The superior gluteal artery supplies the majority of blood to the hip joint.
D) The medial circumflex femoral artery is a major contributor to hip joint blood supply.
E) The popliteal artery is responsible for the primary blood supply to the hip joint.
Question 82:
Which of the following muscle compartments of the thigh is responsible for hip adduction?
A) Anterior compartment
B) Medial compartment
C) Posterior compartment
D) Lateral compartment
E) Superficial compartment
Question 83:
In walking, which of the following functions is primarily attributed to the gluteus medius and minimus muscles?
A) Hip extension
B) Hip abduction and stabilization
C) Hip flexion
D)hip adduction
E) Hip external rotation
Question 84:
Which ligament of the hip joint plays a crucial role in its stability by attaching to the transverse acetabular ligament and the acetabular notch?
A) Iliofemoral ligament
B) Pubofemoral ligament
C) Ischiofemoral ligament
D) Ligamentum teres
E) Round ligament
Question 85:
Which of the following ligaments provides stability to the hip joint by attaching to the anterior inferior iliac spine and the intertrochanteric line of the femur?
A) Iliofemoral ligament
B) Pubofemoral ligament
C) Ischiofemoral ligament
D) Ligamentum teres
E) Round ligament
Question 86:
Which muscle of the gluteal region is responsible for both hip extension and lateral rotation?
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Gluteus medius
C) Gluteus minimus
D) Piriformis
E) Obturator externus
Question 87:
The obturator artery primarily supplies which compartment of the thigh?
A) Anterior compartment
B) Medial compartment
C) Posterior compartment
D) Lateral compartment
E) Superficial compartment
Question 88:
Which of the following muscles is NOT considered a gluteal muscle?
A) Gluteus maximus
B) Gluteus medius
C) Gluteus minimus
D) Piriformis
E) Psoas major
Question 89:
The primary function of the ligamentum teres in the hip joint is:
A) Hip abduction
B) Hip adduction
C) Hip extension
D) Hip flexion
E) Hip stabilization
Question 90:
Which of the following structures is formed by the fusion of the ilium, ischium, and pubis?
A) Acetabulum
B) Sacroiliac joint
C) Pubic symphysis
D) Coccygeal joint
E) Obturator foramen
Question 91:
Which type of joint classification best describes the knee joint?
A) Fibrous joint
B) Cartilaginous joint
C) Synovial joint
D) Amphiarthrosis joint
E) Suture joint
Question 92:
In the knee joint, which of the following ligaments prevents excessive anterior translation of the tibia relative to the femur?
A) Medial collateral ligament (MCL)
B) Lateral collateral ligament (LCL)
C) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)
D) Posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)
E) Patellar ligament
Question 93:
Which compartment of the leg is primarily responsible for dorsiflexion and inversion of the ankle?
A) Anterior compartment
B) Lateral compartment
C) Posterior compartment
D) Medial compartment
E) Superficial compartment
Question 94:
Which muscle of the lower limb primarily functions in hip flexion, lateral rotation, and abduction and is located in the anterior compartment of the thigh?
A) Quadriceps femoris
B) Adductor longus
C) Sartorius
D) Gracilis
E) Tensor fasciae latae
Question 95:
Which of the following joints in the lower limb is classified as a hinge joint and primarily allows for flexion and extension movements?
A) Hip joint
B) Knee joint
C) Ankle joint
D) Subtalar joint
E) Sacroiliac joint
Question 96:
Which of the following movements is primarily associated with the subtalar joint?
A) Dorsiflexion and plantarflexion
B) Inversion and eversion
C) Flexion and extension
D) Abduction and adduction
E) Pronation and supination
Question 97:
In the ankle joint, the deltoid ligament primarily resists which type of force?
A) Anterior translation
B) Posterior translation
C) Inversion
D) Eversion
E) Plantarflexion
Question 98:
The popliteus muscle, located in the posterior compartment of the leg, primarily functions in which of the following movements?
A) Hip flexion
B) Medial rotation
C) Ankle dorsiflexion
D) Hip abduction
E) Ankle inversion
Question 99:
Which nerve, primarily originating from the brachial plexus, innervates the muscles responsible for wrist extension and thumb abduction?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Radial nerve
D) Musculocutaneous nerve
E) Axillary nerve
Question 100:
Which nerve of the lumbar plexus primarily innervates the quadriceps muscle group?
A) Femoral nerve
B) Sciatic nerve
C) Obturator nerve
D) Tibial nerve
E) Pudendal nerve
Question 101:
Which nerve is responsible for the motor innervation of the biceps brachii muscle and is part of the brachial plexus?
A) Ulnar nerve
B) Median nerve
C) Radial nerve
D) Musculocutaneous nerve
E) Axillary nerve
Med Wiz 