Neurology Block MCQs

Neurology

Question 1:

Which of the following accurately describes the function of the sympathetic chain in the autonomic nervous system?

A) It primarily controls voluntary muscle movements in the limbs.

B) It carries sensory information from the skin to the central nervous system.

C) It is responsible for the rest and digest functions of the body.

D) It includes grey and white rami communicantes, serving as the pathway for sympathetic innervation.

E) It is responsible for the transmission of sensory information from the viscera to the brain.

Question 2: 

Which neurotransmitter plays a critical role in regulating mood and is often implicated in depression and anxiety disorders?

    A) Dopamine

    B) Serotonin

    C) GABA

    D) Glutamate

    E) Acetylcholine

 Question 3: 

What is the primary function of the cerebellum in the brain?

    A) Memory consolidation

    B) Motor coordination and balance

    C) Amplification of movement 

    D) Selecting the correct movement

    E) Emotion regulation

Question 4: 

In which neurological disorder do individuals experience sudden, recurrent, and unprovoked seizures?

    A) Huntington’s disease

    B) Parkinson’s disease

    C) Alzheimer’s disease

    D) Epilepsy

    E) Multiple sclerosis

Question 5:

Which of the following accurately describes the function of a dermatome?

A) It is a motor neuron pathway in the limb.

B) It is a region of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve.

C) It is a specialised sensory structure found in the dermis of the skin.

D) It is a specialised sensory receptor.

E) It is a region of skin supplied by multiple spinal nerves.

Question 6: Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the reward pathway and is often implicated in addiction?

    A) Serotonin

    B) GABA

    C) Glutamate

    D) Dopamine

    E) Acetylcholine

Question 7:

Which type of nerve is responsible for transmitting information from the viscera to the brain?

A) Sensory nerve

B) Motor nerve

C) Afferent nerve

D) Somatic nerve

E) Efferent nerve

Question 8:

What is the primary function of the neuromuscular junction?

A) Transmit sensory information to the spinal cord.

B) Relay motor commands from the brain to the muscles.

C) Coordinate muscle contractions.

D) Connect pre & postsynaptic neuron.

E) Transmit signals from motor neurons to muscle fibres.

Question 9: 

Which structure connects the two hemispheres in the central nervous system?

   A) Arbor vitae

   B) Thalamus

   C) Pons

   D) Septum pellucidum

   E) Corpus callosum

Question 10:

In the context of the autonomic nervous system, what is the primary function of the grey rami communicantes?

A) Transmit sensory information to the spinal cord.

B) Carry postganglionic sympathetic fibres from the sympathetic chain to spinal nerves.

C) Relay motor commands from the brain to the muscles.

D) Connect sensory neurons to the spinal cord.

E) Transmit signals from the brain to the spinal cord.

Question 11: 

Which part of the brainstem is responsible for regulating essential functions such as heart rate, respiration, and blood pressure?

   A) Medulla oblongata

   B) Midbrain

   C) Pons

   D) Cerebellum

   E) Thalamus

Question 12: 

Which cranial nerve is responsible for controlling tongue movement?

   A) Cranial nerve X (Vagus nerve)

   B) Cranial nerve V (Trigeminal nerve)

   C) Cranial nerve VII (Facial nerve)

   D) Cranial nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal nerve)

   E) Cranial nerve XII (Hypoglossal nerve)

Question 13: 

What is the primary function of the arachnoid mater in the meninges?

    A) To provide cushioning and protection

    B) To produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

    C) To anchor the brain to the skull

    D) To regulate blood flow to the brain

    E) To serve as a barrier to infection

Question 14: 

Which major functional area of the cerebral hemispheres is responsible for processing sensory information such as touch and proprioception?

    A) Frontal lobe

    B) Occipital lobe

    C) Parietal lobe

    D) Temporal lobe

    E) Limbic lobe

Question 15:

What is the primary function of autonomic ganglia?

A) Relay sensory information to the brain.

B) Coordinate voluntary muscle movements.

C) Transmit motor commands from the spinal cord.

D) Regulate involuntary bodily functions.

E) Transmit signals from the brain to the muscles.

Question 16:

What is the primary role of neurons whose cell bodies are in the dorsal root ganglion?

A) Transmit motor commands to muscles.

B) Relay sensory information from central nervous system to muscles.

C) Relay sensory information to the central nervous system.

D) Regulate autonomic functions.

E) Relay motor impulses from the central nervous system to muscles.

Question 17:

In the peripheral nervous system, where are the cell bodies of motor neurons typically located?

A) In the ventral horn of the spinal cord.

B) In the dorsal root ganglion.

C) In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord

D) In the brainstem.

E) In the lateral horn of the spinal cord

Question 18: 

Which structure connects the third and fourth ventricles in the brain, allowing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to flow between them?

    A) Cerebral aqueduct (Sylvian aqueduct)

    B) Interventricular foramen (Foramen of Monro) 

    C) Lateral aperture (Foramen of Luschka) 

    D) Median aperture (Foramen of Magendie) 

    E) Septum pellucidum

Question 19:

From which part of the brainstem do cranial nerves 5 through 8 (CN V-VIII) arise?

A) Medulla oblongata

B) Midbrain

C) Pons

D) Cerebellum

E) Cerebrum 

Question 20: 

Which part of the brain is responsible for processing visual information and is located in the posterior part of the cerebral hemispheres?

    A) Frontal lobe

    B) Occipital lobe

    C) Parietal lobe

    D) Temporal lobe

    E) Insular cortex

Question 21: 

During embryonic development, the neural tube forms from which germ layer?

   A) Mesoderm

   B) Endoderm

   C) Ectoderm

   D) Somites

   E) Lateral plate mesoderm

Question 22: 

Which cranial nerve exits the skull through the Jugular foramen and is responsible for controlling vital functions such as respiration and heart rate?

    A) Cranial nerve IX (Glossopharyngeal nerve)

    B) Cranial nerve X (Vagus nerve)

    C) Cranial nerve XI (Accessory nerve)

    D) Cranial nerve XII (Hypoglossal nerve)

    E) Cranial nerve VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve)

Question 23:

What is the connective tissue component that surrounds individual axons within a nerve bundle?

A) Epineurium

B) Perineurium

C) Endoneurium

D) Myelin sheath

E) Fascicle

Question 24: 

Which structure in the skull allows the passage of cranial nerves III, IV, V1, and VI?

    A) Foramen ovale

    B) Foramen spinosum

    C) Superior orbital fissure

    D) Foramen lacerum

    E) Foramen rotundum

Question 25: 

Which brain vesicle primarily gives rise to the adult cerebrum?

   A) Prosencephalon (forebrain)

   B) Mesencephalon (midbrain)

   C) Rhombencephalon (hindbrain)

   D) Diencephalon

   E) Telencephalon

Question 26: 

What is the embryonic precursor of the medulla oblongata in the adult brain?

   A) Metencephalon

   B) Myelencephalon

   C) Diencephalon

   D) Telencephalon

   E) Mesencephalon

Question 27: 

Which of the following does NOT originate from the ectoderm during embryonic development?

    A) Skin

    B) Nervous system

    C) Muscles

    E) Hair

    E) Nails

Question 28:

C fibres are primarily responsible for transmitting which type of sensory information?

A) Sharp, localised pain

B) Warm temperature and slow pain

C) Muscle proprioception

D) Fast, voluntary muscle contractions

E) Fine touch and vibration

Question 29: 

What is the primary function of Schwann cells in the nervous system?

    A) Formation of myelin sheaths in the central nervous system

    B) Formation of myelin sheaths in the peripheral nervous system

    C) Synthesising cerebrospinal fluid

    D) Maintaining the blood-brain barrier

    E) Regulating immunity in the nervous system

Question 30:

A-alpha fibres are primarily associated with which physiological function?

A) Proprioception

B) Carrying motor signals to skeletal muscles to initiate their contraction

C) Sensing changes in temperature

D) Transmitting touch sensations

E) Cause contraction of muscle spindles

Question 31:

What is the primary function of astrocytes in the nervous system?

 A) Phagocytosis of pathogens and debris

 B) Formation of myelin sheaths

 C) Providing structural support and maintaining the blood-brain barrier

 D) Regulation of neurotransmitter release

 E) Initiating immune responses

Question 32: 

During brain development, which structure differentiates into the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus?

   A) Telencephalon

   B) Diencephalon

   C) Mesencephalon

   D) Metencephalon

   E) Myelencephalon

Question 33: 

What is the primary function of the blood-brain barrier in the nervous system?

A) Promoting the entry of immune cells into the brain

B) Preventing the passage of nutrients into the brain

C) Protecting the brain from harmful substances and pathogens in the         blood

D) Facilitating the exchange of neurotransmitters

E) Regulating blood pressure in the brain

Question 34:

A-gamma fibres are primarily associated with which physiological function?

A) Transmitting pain signals

B) Carrying motor signals to skeletal muscles

C) Sensory control of muscle spindles

D) Transmitting touch sensations

E) Motor control of muscle spindle

Question 35:

Which type of nerve fibres are primarily associated with fast signal transduction in the nervous system?

A) Myelinated fibres

B) Unmyelinated fibres

C) C fibres

D) A-delta fibres

E) A-alpha fibres

Question 36: 

Which supporting cells in the central nervous system (CNS) are responsible for forming myelin sheaths around axons?

   A) Oligodendrocytes

    B) Astrocytes

    C) Microglia

    D) Ependymal cells

    E) Schwann cells

Question 37: 

In the cross-sectional organisation of the spinal cord, which region contains motor neurons that send signals to skeletal muscles?

    A) Dorsal horn

    B) Lateral horn

    C) Ventral horn

    D) Central canal

    E) Spinal ganglion

Question 38: 

At the neuromuscular junction, which neurotransmitter is responsible for transmitting signals from motor neurons to muscle cells?

A) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)

B) Glycine

C) Acetylcholine

D) Substance P

E) Glutamate

Question 39: 

Which of the following is not a secondary brain vesicle?    

    A) Prosencephalon 

    B) Myelencephalon

    C) Metencephalon

    D) Diencephalon

    E) Telencephalon

Question 40:

In the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system, what distinguishes the length of pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic neurons?

A) Both pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic neurons have short axons.

B) Both pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic neurons have long axons.

C) Pre-ganglionic neurons have long axons, while post-ganglionic neurons have short axons.

D) Pre-ganglionic neurons have short axons, while post-ganglionic neurons have long axons.

E) The lengths of axons in the sympathetic division vary widely and are not consistent.

Question 41:

Where does the decussation (crossing over) of fibres of the spinothalamic system occur in the somatosensory pathways?

A) In the dorsal column of the level of entry

B) In the spinal cord at the level of entry

C) In the dorsal root ganglia at the level

D) In the medulla 

E) In the thalamus

Question 42: 

Which cranial nerve is primarily responsible for controlling the lateral rectus muscle of the eye, which moves the eye laterally?

   A) Optic nerve (cranial nerve II)

   B) Oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III)

   C) Abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI)

   D) Trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV)

   E) Facial nerve (cranial nerve VII)

Question 43:

What role does the thalamus play in the somatosensory pathway?

A) It serves as the input to the cerebellum.

B) It is responsible for proprioception.

C) It relays sensory information to the cerebral cortex.

D) It controls reflex withdrawal to pain.

E) It houses the sensory homunculus.

Question 44:

What is the primary role of the sensory homunculus located in the primary somatosensory cortex?

A) Relays sensory information to the somatosensory cortex

B) Relay sensory information to the spinal cord

C) Represent the somatotopic map of the body

D) Regulate autonomic functions

E) Process visual information

Question 45: 

Which cranial nerve is responsible for controlling the inferior oblique muscle of the eye?

   A) Optic nerve (cranial nerve II)

   B) Oculomotor nerve (cranial nerve III)

   C) Abducens nerve (cranial nerve VI)

   D) Trochlear nerve (cranial nerve IV)

   E) Facial nerve (cranial nerve VII)

Question 46:

Which neural pathway is primarily responsible for transmitting crude touch sensations to the brain?

A) Dorsal column/medial lemniscus pathway

B) Anterior pathway of spinothalamic tract

C) Posterior pathway of spinothalamic tract

D) Lateral corticospinal tract

E) Ventral corticospinal tract

Question 47: 

Which part of the ear is responsible for transmitting sound waves from the external ear to the middle ear?

   A) Tympanic membrane (eardrum)

   B) Pharyngotympanic tube

   C) Oval window

   D) Auditory ossicles

   E) Semicircular canals

Question 48:

Which of the following sensory modalities is primarily transmitted through the spinocerebellar pathways?

A) Pain and temperature

B) Conscious proprioception

C) Crude touch and pressure

D) Fine touch & pressure

E) Unconscious proprioception

Question 49: 

What is the primary function of the semicircular canals in the inner ear?

   A) Hearing

   B) Balance and spatial orientation

   C) Transmitting sound vibrations to the cochlea

   D) Amplifying sound waves

   E) Protecting the inner ear from loud noises

Question 50:

In the DCML pathway, where does the decussation (crossing over) of sensory fibres occur?

A) In the somatosensory cortex

B) In the thalamus

C) At the level of entry into the spinal cord

D) In the medulla oblongata

E) In the dorsal columns of the spinal cord

Question 51: 

Which part of the ear is responsible for regulating air pressure in the middle ear and & is connected to the pharynx?

   A) Cochlea

   B) Oval window

   C) Auditory ossicles

   D) Eustachian tube

   E) Mastoid air cells

Question 52:

Which neural pathway is primarily responsible for transmitting information related to discriminative fine touch, vibration, and conscious proprioception?

A) Anterior spinothalamic tract

B) Posterior spinothalamic tract

C) Lateral corticospinal tract

D) Dorsal column-medial lemniscus (DCML) pathway

E) Spinocerebellar tract

Question 53:

Which neural pathway carries sensory information primarily related to pain and temperature sensations?

A) Anterior spinothalamic tract

B) Lateral spinothalamic tract

C) Dorsal column-medial lemniscus (DCML) pathway

D) Lateral corticospinal tract

E) Spinocerebellar tract

Question 54:

Which spinal pathway in the nervous system undergoes two distinct points of decussation (crossing over) during its course?

A) Anterior spinothalamic tract

B) Lateral spinothalamic tract

C) Lateral corticospinal tract

D) Dorsal column-medial lemniscus (DCML) pathway

E) Spinocerebellar pathways

Question 55:

Which body regions occupy the largest proportions of the somatosensory homunculus in the primary somatosensory cortex?

A) Feet and back

B) Torso and arms

C) Face and hands

D) Legs and abdomen

E) Head and neck

Question 56: 

Which of the following best describes the layout of sympathetic and parasympathetic fibres?

A) Short pre-ganglionic fibres and long post-ganglionic fibres for both systems. 

B) Long pre-ganglionic fibres and short post-ganglionic fibres for both systems. 

C) Short pre-ganglionic fibres and short post-ganglionic fibres for sympathetic, and long pre-ganglionic fibres and long post-ganglionic fibres for parasympathetic. 

D) Long pre-ganglionic fibres and short post-ganglionic fibres for sympathetic, and short pre-ganglionic fibres and long post-ganglionic fibres for parasympathetic. 

E) Short pre-ganglionic fibres and long post-ganglionic fibres for sympathetic, and long pre-ganglionic fibres and short post-ganglionic fibres for parasympathetic.

Question 57: 

What type of fibres travel through the grey rami communicans?

A) Pre-ganglionic fibres 

B) Sensory fibres 

C) Motor fibres 

D) Post-ganglionic fibres 

E) Sympathetic fibres

Question 58: 

What is the main function of Meissner receptors?

A) Detecting changes in temperature 

B) Pain detection 

C) Sustained touch 

D) Discerning fine touch and texture 

E) Pressure detection

Question 59: 

In the central nervous system, where are most third-order neurones found?

A) Cerebral Cortex 

B) Spinal Cord 

C) Pyramids of medulla oblongata 

D) Thalamus 

E) Colliculi of midbrain

Question 60:

Which sensations are primarily transmitted through the Dorsal Column-Medial Lemniscus (DCML) pathway?

A) Pressure and unconscious proprioception 

B) Pain and temperature 

C) Proprioception and crude touch 

D) Proprioception, fine touch and vibration 

E) Pain, temperature, crude touch and vibration

Question 61: 

Which specific part of the spinal cord carries signals from the lower part of the body for proprioception, fine touch, and vibration?

A) Cuneocerebellar 

B) Lateral spinothalamic tract 

C) Ventral posterolateral nucleus 

D) Fasciculus cuneatus 

E) Fasciculus gracilis

Question 62: 

Which set of clinical features is commonly observed in patients with Lower Motor Neuron (LMN) lesions?

A) Increased muscle tone, hyperreflexia, fasciculations 

B) Muscle atrophy, spasticity, hyporeflexia, fasciculations 

C) Muscle atrophy, flaccidity, weakness, fasciculations, hyporeflexia 

D) Flaccidity, clonus, spasticity, hyperreflexia 

E) Flaccidity, hyporeflexia, muscle weakness, muscle atrophy, increased tone

Question 63: 

At which specific location does the corticospinal tract decussate in the central nervous system?

A) Midbrain 

B) Cerebral Cortex 

C) Olives of the medulla

D) Spinal cord

E) Pyramids of the medulla

Question 64:

What is the smallest bone in the body?

  1.  Stapes
  2. Hamate
  3. Malleus
  4. Incus
  5. Navicular

Question 65:

Which structure separates the right & left hemispheres of the brain?
 A) Longitudinal sulcus

 B) Central sulcus

 C) Longitudinal fissure

 D) Longitudinal gyrus

 E) Central gyrus

Question 66:

Where is the primary somatosensory cortex located?

  1. Parietal lobe
  2. Post-central gyrus
  3. Pre-central gyrus
  4. Temporal lobe
  5. Frontal lobe

Question 67:

What structure links the endocrine system to the nervous system?

  1. Thalamus
  2. Epithalamus
  3. Subthalamus
  4. Pituitary gland
  5. Hypothalamus

Question 68:

Which structure joins the cerebellum to the medulla oblongata?

  1. Superior peduncle
  2. Inferior peduncle
  3. Meninges
  4. Calcarine sulcus
  5. Middle peduncle

Question 69:

What structures make up the spinocerebellum?

  1. Vermis & paravermis
  2. Vermis & primary fissure
  3. Primary fissure & horizontal fissure
  4. Vermis, paravermis & cerebellar peduncles
  5. Horizontal fissure & tonsils

Question 70:

What is the function of the vestibulocerebellum?

  1. Unconscious proprioception
  2. Motor learning 
  3. Planning & coordinating behaviour
  4. Balance & eye movement
  5. Regulating movements & conscious proprioception

Question 71:

From which part of the brain/brainstem do cranial nerves III (oculomotor) & IV (trochlear) emerge from?

  1. Cerebral cortex
  2. Occipital lobe
  3. Midbrain
  4. Medulla oblongata
  5. Cerebellum

Question 72:

Which cranial nerve runs in the cribiform plate?

  1. Olfactory
  2. Optic
  3. Abducens
  4. Facial 
  5. Trigeminal

Question 73:

In addition to the vestibulocochlear nerve, what other nerve also passes through the internal acoustic meatus?

  1. Glossopharyngeal
  2. Hypoglossal
  3. Accessory
  4. Vagus
  5. Facial

Question 74:

Which of the following is the correct order of the layers of the meninges from deep to superficial?

  1. Dura, arachnoid, pia
  2. Pia, arachnoid, dura
  3. Pia, dura arachnoid, dura
  4. Arachnoid, pia, dura
  5. Arachnoid, dura, pia

Question 75:

Which of the following ventricles of the brain secrete the greatest volume of cerebrospinal fluid?

  1. 4th ventricle
  2. Cerebral aqueduct (Sylvian aqueduct)
  3. 3rd ventricle
  4. Interventricular foramen (Foramen of Monro)
  5. Lateral ventricles

Question 76:

Which 2 arteries provide the majority of the blood supply to the brain?

  1. External carotid & vertebral arteries
  2. Internal carotid & vertebral arteries
  3. Common carotid & vertebral arteries
  4. Internal carotid & subclavian arteries
  5. Internal carotid & brachiocephalic arteries

Question 77:

What is the predominant venous drainage of the brain?

  1. Internal jugular vein
  2. Confluence of sinus
  3. Superior sagittal sinus
  4. Great cerebellar vein
  5. Cavernous sinus

Question 78:

At which vertebral level does the adult spinal cord terminate?

  1. T12 – L1
  2. L1 – L2
  3. L2 – L3
  4. L3 – L4
  5. L4 – L5

Question 79:

Which of the following covers the posterior & lateral 5/6th of the fibrous layer of the eye?

  1. Cornea
  2. Sclera
  3. Choroid
  4. Macula lutea
  5. Optic disc 

Question 80:

Which of the following make up the 3 layers of the eye?

  1. Fibrous, vascular, retina
  2. Fibrous, ciliary, retina
  3. Fibrous, muscular, retina
  4. Fibrous, muscular, vascular
  5. Fibrous, ciliary, vascular

Question 81:

Which of the following eye muscles does the sympathetic nervous system innervate?

  1. Sphincter pupillae
  2. Superior oblique
  3. Inferior oblique
  4. Inferior rectus
  5. Dilator pupillae

Question 82:

Which section of the eye is the thinnest & is where the majority of cones (colour photoreceptors) are located?

  1. Orra Serrata
  2. Optic disc
  3. Macula lutea
  4. Fovea
  5. Retina

Question 83:

Which photoreceptors connect to the optic nerve?

  1. Rods & cones
  2. Horizontal cell
  3. Bipolar cells
  4. Amacrine cells
  5. Ganglion cells

Question 84:

Which of the following muscles elevates, adducts & medially rotates the eye?

  1. Superior oblique 
  2. Superior rectus
  3. Inferior oblique
  4. Inferior rectus
  5. Levator palpabrae superioris

Question 85:

Which part of the ear is the region where sound waves enter?

  1. External acoustic meatus
  2. Lobule
  3. Concha
  4. Tragus
  5. Helix

Question 86:

Which of the following fluids fill the bony labyrinth of the inner ear?

  1. Endosteum
  2. Endolymph
  3. Perilymph
  4. Periosteum
  5. Epiosteum

Question 87:

What structures make up membranous labyrinth of the inner ear?

  1. Vestibule, semicircular canals & cochlea
  2. Semicircular ducts, utricle, saccule & cochlear ducts
  3. Vestibule, utricle & saccule
  4. Semicircular canals, utricle & saccule
  5. Semicircular ducts, utricle, saccule, cochlear ducts & vestibule

Question 88:

Which of the following triggers the release of neurotransmitters in the vestibulocochlear nerve when vibration is detected?

  1. Enolymph
  2. Basilar membrane
  3. Hair cells
  4. Sterocilia
  5. Organ of corti

Question 89:

To which region of the thalamus do fibres of the optic nerve project to?

  1. Lateral geniculate body
  2. Medial geniculate body
  3. Betz cells
  4. Optic radiation
  5. Lateral lemniscus

Question 90:

In which of the following structures is endolymph found?

  1. Scala tympani
  2.  Scala vestibuli
  3. Scala media
  4. Tunica media
  5. Basilar membrane

Question 91:

What is the structure of sensory neuron?
A) Bipolar neuron

B) Pseudounipolar neuron

C) Interneuron

D) Multipolar neuron

E) Dendritic neuron

Question 92:

Which of the following structures lines the olfactory nerve (CN I)?

  1. Olfactory ensheathing cell
  2. Schwann cell
  3. Oligodendrocytes
  4. Astrocytes
  5. Satellite glial cell

Question 93:

Which of the following is the only unmyelinated nerve (out of the 12 cranial nerves)?

  1. Hypoglossal (CN XII)
  2. Accessory (CN XI)
  3. Vagus (CN X)
  4. Optic (CN II)
  5. Olfactory (CN I)

Question 94:

Damage to the endoneurium & perineurium of a neuron describes which of the following conditions?

  1. Grade I neuropraxia
  2. Grade II axonotmesis
  3. Grade III neurotmesis
  4. Grade IV neurotmesis
  5. Grade V neurotmesis

Question 95:

Which of the following layers of the neocortex is predominantly found in the pre-central gyrus?

  1. Molecular
  2. External granular
  3. External pyramidal
  4. Internal granular
  5. Internal pyramidal

Question 96:

Through which region of a neuron do sodium & potassium ions diffuse into the axon via voltage gated channels?

  1. Axon hillock
  2. Axon terminal
  3. Nodes of Ranvier
  4. Synaptic cleft
  5. Pre-synaptic membrane

Question 97:


Which of the following is an inhibitory neurotransmitter?

  1. Aspartate
  2. Nitric oxide
  3. Glutamate
  4. Dopamine
  5. Acetylcholine

Question 98:

Which of the following is a neurotransmitter derived from amino acids?

  1. Glutamate
  2. Endorphins
  3. Substance P
  4. Adenosine
  5. Noradrenaline

Question 99:

Which of the following upregulates the AMPA receptor?
A) Magnesium ions

B) NMDA receptor

C) Chloride ion receptor

D) Muscarinic receptor

E) Adrenergic receptor


Question 100:

Which of the following fibres are the largest, fastest & most myelinated?

  1. A-alpha fibre
  2. A-gamma fibre
  3. A-delta fibre
  4. B fibre
  5. C fibre

Question 101:

Which of the following contains pre-ganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system?

  1. CN III, IV, V & VI
  2. CN IX, X & XI
  3. CN III, VII, IX & X
  4. CN III, VII, IX, X & XI
  5. CN III, IV, VI, IX & X

Question 102:

Which of the following receptors is responsible for detecting sustained touch & pressure?

  1. Pacinian corpuscle
  2. Meissner’s corpuscle
  3. Merkel’s discs
  4. Ruffini receptors
  5. Free nerve endings

Question 103:

Lesions in the spinal cord causes damage to which of the following tracts resulting in: ipsilateral loss of vibration & proprioception and contralateral loss of pain of temperature known as Brown-Sequard Syndrome?

  1. Corticospinal tract & spinothalamic tract
  2. Spinothalamic tract & dorsal column medial lemniscus tract
  3. Dorsal column medial lemniscus tract & corticospinal tract
  4. Dorsal column medial lemniscus tract & cerebrocerebellar tract
  5. Cerebrocerebellar tract & spinothalamic tract

Question 104:

Which of the following dermatomes is the referred region of pain involved in appendicitis?

  1. T6
  2. T8
  3. T10
  4. T12
  5. L2

Question 105:

How many synapses are there in the brachial plexus?

  1. 0
  2. 1,000
  3. 10,000
  4. 100,000
  5. 1,000,000

Question 106:

Which of the following cells inhibits motor neurons whose target is the antagonist muscle in the reflex inhibition of antagonist muscle reflex?

  1. Betz cells
  2. Pyramidal cells
  3. Otolith organs
  4. Renshaw cell
  5. Purkinje cell

Question 107:

Brodmann area 4 represents which of the following areas of the cerebral cortex?

  1. Primary somatosensory cortex
  2. Primary motor cortex
  3. Broca’s area
  4. Wernicke’s area
  5. Visual cortex

Question 108:

Which of the following is a key symptom of an upper motor neuron lesion?

  1. Weakness 
  2. Hyporeflexia
  3. Muscle wasting
  4. Fasciculation
  5. Positive Babinski sign

Question 109:

Which of the following is a unique characteristic of the cerebellum?

  1. Folia
  2. Betz cells
  3. Gyrus
  4. Fissures
  5. Pyramidal cells

Question 110:

Which of the following is the main output of the cerebellum to the thalamus?

  1. 4th ventricle
  2. Superior peduncle
  3. Middle peduncle
  4. Inferior peduncle
  5. Folia

Question 111:

Which of the following is the main cerebellar nuclei found in the cerebrocerebellum?

  1. Dentate nucleus
  2. Interposed nucleus
  3. Globose nucleus
  4. Vestibular nucleus
  5. Fastigial nucleus

Question 112:

Which of the following is the deepest layer of the cerebellum?

  1. Purkinje layer
  2. Molecular layer
  3. Granule layer
  4. Pyramidal layer
  5. Folia 

Question 113:

Climbing fibres that stimulate purkinje cells in the cerebellum project from which structure?

  1. Vestibular nucleus
  2. Olives of the medulla
  3. Pyramids of the medulla
  4. Inferior olivary nucleus
  5. Superior olivary nucleus

Question 114:

Axons of which cell is the main output of the cerebellum?

  1. Mossy fibres
  2. Basket cells
  3. Granule cells
  4. Stellate cells
  5. Purkinje cells

Question 115:

How many climbing fibres directly synapse with a single purkinje cell?

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 10
  4. 100
  5. 1000

Question 116:

Mossy fibres synapse with which of the following cells?

  1. Granule cells & golgi cells
  2. Basket cells
  3. Cerebellar nuclei
  4. Purkinje cells
  5. Stellate cells

Question 117:

Where does all input to the cerebellum come from (except those from the inferior olivary nucleus)?

  1. Climbing fibres
  2. Medulla oblongata
  3. Mossy fibres
  4. Purkinje cells
  5. Granule cells


Question 118:

Damage to the cerebellum results in which of the following disorders?

  1. Ballismus
  2. Bradykinesia
  3. Dyskinesis
  4. Ataxia
  5. Apraxia

Question 119:

Which structures make up the neostriatum of the basal ganglia?

  1. Caudate & putamen
  2. Caudate & globus pallidus
  3. Caudate & nucleus accumbens
  4. Putamen & globus pallidus
  5. Putamen & substantia nigra

Question 120:

Which of the following structures is not a part of the basal ganglia?

  1. Substantia nigra
  2. Subthalamic nucleus
  3. Thalamus
  4. Nucleus accumbens
  5. Globus pallidus externus

Question 121:

Which neurotransmitter does the substantia nigra release?

  1. Glutamate
  2. GABA
  3. Aspartate
  4. Serotonin
  5. Dopamine

Question 122:

Which of the following receptors is associated with the indirect pathway of the basal ganglia?

  1. M3 – Muscarinic receptor
  2. Beta -2 adrenergic receptor
  3. D1
  4. D2
  5. D7

Question 123:

What neurotransmitter does the striatum in the basal ganglia release in both the direct & indirect pathway, when activated by dopamine released from the substantia nigra?

  1. Dopamine
  2. GABA
  3. Glutamate
  4. Aspartate
  5. Glycine 

Question 124:

Which neurotransmitter does the thalamus release in the basal ganglia when it is not inhibited?

  1. Dopamine
  2. GABA
  3. Glutamate
  4. Aspartate
  5. Glycine 

Question 125:

Which of the following components of the basal ganglia is involved with emotional processing?

  1. Putamen
  2. Caudate
  3. Globus pallidus
  4. Nucleus accumbens
  5. Subthalamic nucleus

Question 126:

Damage to which of the following structures causes Huntington’s disease?

  1. Cerebellum
  2. Direct pathway of basal ganglia
  3. Direct & indirect pathway of the basal ganglia
  4. Indirect pathway of the basal ganglia
  5. Primary motor cortex


Question 127:

Damage to which cortical area results in a lack of understanding of speech despite being able to produce fluent speech?

  1. Broca’s area
  2. Wernicke’s area
  3. Primary auditory cortex
  4. Hearing association area
  5. Left temporal lobe

Question 128:

Damage to the Papez circuit aka the limbic circuit causes which one of the following?

  1. Difficulty forming episodic memories
  2. Difficulty learning
  3. Difficulty forming procedural memories
  4. Difficulty forming semantic memories
  5. Difficulty recalling memories

Question 129:

Where does the Papez circuit begin?

  1. Fornix
  2. Thalamus
  3. Cingulum
  4. Hippocampus
  5. Parahippocampal gyrus

Question 130:

Which of the following brain structures is associated with fear & arousal?

  1. Parahippocampus
  2. Amygdala
  3. Limbic system
  4. Thalamus
  5. Epithalamus