Respiratory
Question 1:
Which of the following cells is primarily responsible for secreting surfactant in the alveoli?
a) Type I alveolar cells
b) Type II alveolar cells
c) Alveolar macrophages
d) Ciliated columnar cells
e) Smooth muscle cells
Question 2:
Which of the following best describes the role of erythropoietin in the respiratory system?
a) It controls the rate of breathing.
b) It stimulates the production of red blood cells in response to low oxygen levels.
c) It stimulates the production of RBC in response to high blood O2 levels
d) It produces sounds for speech.
e) It helps humidify inhaled air.
Question 3:
Which respiratory condition is characterized by the permanent enlargement and destruction of air sacs in the lungs, leading to decreased elastic recoil?
a) Asthma
b) Pneumonia
c) Emphysema
d) Bronchitis
e) Tuberculosis
Question 4:
In pulmonary circulation, oxygenated blood is transported from the lungs to the heart through which vessel?
a) Pulmonary artery
b) Pulmonary vein
c) Aorta
d) Superior vena cava
e) Inferior vena cava
Question 5:
Which of the following is the primary stimulus for increasing the rate and depth of breathing during exercise?
a) Increased carbon dioxide (CO2) levels
b) Decreased oxygen (O2) levels
c) Increased oxygen (O2) levels
d) Increased stretch of the lungs
e) Increased blood PH
Question 6:
Which of the following lung volumes represents the maximum amount of air a person can exhale forcefully after taking the deepest possible breath?
a) Tidal volume
b) Inspiratory reserve volume
c) Expiratory reserve volume
d) Residual volume
e) Vital capacity
Question 7:
Which component of the respiratory system is responsible for filtering, humidifying, and warming inspired air?
a) Alveoli
b) Trachea
c) Pharynx
d) Nasal cavity
e) Larynx
Question 8:
What is the primary function of surfactant in the alveoli?
a) To decrease surface tension and prevent alveolar collapse
b) To trap inhaled particles and pathogens
c) To provide nutrients to alveolar cells
d) To increase surface tension and prevent alveolar collapse during exhalation
e) To protect against lung infections
Question 9:
Which of the following conditions results from an autosomal recessive genetic mutation affecting chloride channels in the respiratory and digestive systems?
a) Asthma
b) Emphysema
c) Cystic fibrosis
d) Tuberculosis
e) Pneumonia
Question 10:
Which lung volume always remains in the lungs, preventing lung collapse even after maximal exhalation?
a) Tidal volume
b) functional residual capacity
c) Expiratory reserve volume
d) Residual volume
e) Vital capacity
Question 11:
What is the primary function of the pleural membranes surrounding the lungs?
a) Facilitating gas exchange
b) Providing protection against infections
c) Reducing friction during breathing
d) Secreting mucus for airway lubrication
e) Producing surfactant for lung expansion
Question 12:
Which of the following hormones can dilate the bronchioles and increase respiratory rate?
a) DHEA
b) cortisol
c) Aldosterone
d) Epinephrine
e) Thyroxine
Question 13:
During exercise, what happens to the respiratory rate and tidal volume?
a) Respiratory rate increases, tidal volume decreases
b) Respiratory rate decreases, tidal volume increases
c) Respiratory rate and tidal volume both increase
d) Respiratory rate and tidal volume both decrease
e) Respiratory rate remains unchanged, but tidal volume increases
Question 14:
Which specific part of the brain is primarily responsible for the automatic control of respiration, including basic rhythm and rate?
a) Cerebellum
b) Thalamus
c) Medulla oblongata
d) Pons
e) Hypothalamus
Question 15:
In the context of respiratory control, what is the primary function of central chemoreceptors?
a) Detect changes in arterial oxygen levels
b) Monitor lung compliance
c) Respond to changes in arterial carbon dioxide levels
d) Regulate surfactant production
e) Control the rate of heart contractions
Question 16:
What is the primary role of the mucociliary escalator in lung defence?
a) Trapping and removing inhaled pathogens and particles
b) Mucus secretion to protect the lining from chemicals
c) Cilia cells push air towards the alveoli
d) Producing surfactant for alveolar stability
e) Transmitting neural signals for breathing control
Question 17:
In terms of lung defence, what is the role of immunoglobulin IgE?
a) Promotion of mucus production
b) Activation of macrophages
c) Inhibition of inflammation
d) Antagonism of IgA
e) Allergic responses and defence against parasites
Question 18:
In the context of respiratory physiology, explain how the Haldane effect influences the exchange of carbon dioxide in the blood.
a) The Haldane effect enhances carbon dioxide binding to haemoglobin in systemic capillaries.
b) The Haldane effect promotes carbon dioxide unloading from haemoglobin in pulmonary capillaries.
c) The Haldane effect reduces carbon dioxide transport in venous blood.
d) The Haldane effect increases carbon dioxide solubility in arterial blood.
e) The Haldane effect decreases carbon dioxide production in tissues.
Question 19:
Which immunoglobulin plays a significant role in lung defence by binding to airborne pathogens in mucosa?
a) IgA
b) IgE
c) IgG
d) IgM
e) IgD
Question 20:
What is the role of the CFTR protein?
a) Prevents airway collapse
b) Inhibiting cough reflex
c) Regulating ciliary movement
d) Regulating mucus production
e) Supporting alveolar gas exchange
Question 21:
Which cells play a role in host defence in the respiratory system by phagocytosing pathogens and cellular debris?
a) T cells
b) B cells
c) Macrophages
d) Eosinophils
e) Mast cells
Question 22:
Which type of vaccination exposes an individual to an inactivated or weakened pathogen to stimulate an immune response?
a) Passive Vaccination
b) Active Vaccination
c) DNA Vaccination
d) mRNA Vaccination
e) Subunit Vaccination
Question 23:
Which nerves are responsible for the innervation of the diaphragm?
a) Phrenic nerves
b) Vagus nerves
c) Sympathetic nerves
d) Glossopharyngeal nerves
e) Recurrent laryngeal nerves
Question 24: What is the approximate height of the Airway Surface Liquid (ASL) in the respiratory system?
a) 2 micrometres
b) 4 micrometres
c) 6 micrometres
d) 7 micrometres
e) 8 micrometres
Question 25:
What is the primary function of goblet cells in the respiratory epithelium?
a) Secretion of surfactant
b) Production of mucus
c) Gas exchange
d) Immune cell activation
e) Ciliary movement
Question 26:
What do peripheral chemoreceptors primarily detect in the bloodstream to regulate respiratory rate?
a) Oxygen concentration
b) Carbon dioxide concentration
c) pH level
d) Blood pressure
e) Haemoglobin levels
Question 27:
Which of the following statements about 2,3-diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) is correct?
a) 2,3-DPG increases haemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen
b) 2,3-DPG decreases haemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen
c) 2,3-DPG is primarily produced in the lungs
d) 2,3-DPG enhances the binding of carbon monoxide to haemoglobin
e) 2,3-DPG is involved in the transport of carbon dioxide in the blood
Question 28:
What distinguishes the left recurrent laryngeal nerve from the right recurrent laryngeal nerve in terms of its anatomical course?
a) The left recurrent laryngeal nerve loops around the aorta
b) The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is longer than the right recurrent laryngeal nerve
c) The left recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates different muscles than the right recurrent laryngeal nerve
d) The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is not involved in vocal cord movement
e) The left recurrent laryngeal nerve is not a branch of the vagus nerve
Question 29:
Which of the following muscles primarily functions as an expiratory muscle?
a) Diaphragm
b) Rectus abdominis
c) Sternocleidomastoid
d) Scalene muscles
e) Pectoralis minor
Question 30:
Which part of the brain is responsible for fine-tuning and controlling the depth and rate of breathing, thereby influencing the inspiratory and expiratory rhythm generated by the medullary respiratory centres?
a) Ventral Respiratory Group (VRG)
b) Dorsal Respiratory Group (DRG)
c) Pneumotaxic Centre
d) Apneustic Centre
e) Hypothalamus
Question 31:
What is the primary role of the Dorsal Respiratory Group (DRG) in the respiratory control centre?
a) Initiating inspiration
b) Initiating expiration
c) Regulating blood pH
d) Modulating cough reflex
e) Controlling voluntary breathing
Question 32:
The Hering-Breuer reflex is a protective mechanism in the respiratory system that prevents overinflation of the lungs. Which receptors are primarily responsible for initiating this reflex?
a) J receptors
b) Carotid bodies chemoreceptors
c) Central chemoreceptors in medulla oblongata
d) Baroreceptors
e) Stretch receptors in the bronchi and bronchioles
Question 33:
What is the key difference between a shunt and physiologic dead space in the respiratory system?
a) Shunt involves areas with poor ventilation and good perfusion, while physiologic dead space involves areas with good ventilation and poor perfusion.
b) Shunt involves areas with good ventilation and poor perfusion, while physiologic dead space involves areas with good ventilation and poor perfusion.
c) Shunt and physiologic dead space are essentially the same, involving areas with good ventilation and poor perfusion.
d) Shunt and physiologic dead space are essentially the same, involving areas with poor ventilation and poor perfusion.
e) Shunt involves areas with no ventilation and no perfusion, while physiologic dead space involves areas with good ventilation and good perfusion.
Question 34:
What is the primary mechanism behind hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction (HPV)?
a) Increased nitric oxide production leading to vasodilation for increased blood flow.
b) Activation of sympathetic nerves causing pulmonary arteriole constriction.
c) Elevated pH in response to hypoxia resulting in vasoconstriction to expire CO2.
d) Release of histamine causing relaxation of pulmonary arterioles to allow for increased blood flop.
e) Hypoxia-induced vasoconstriction causing pulmonary arteriole constriction and diverting blood flow to better ventilated alveoli.
Question 35:
Which cell type best describes type 2 pneumocytes in the alveoli?
a) Squamous
b) Cuboidal
c) Columnar
d) Ciliated
e) Brush border
Question 36:
From which spinal levels do the phrenic nerves originate?
a) C3 to C5
b) C6 to C8
c) T1 to T3
d) L1 to L3
e) S1 to S3
Question 37:
Why is diving dangerous at significant depths?
A) Depletion of oxygen
B) Increased partial pressure of gases
C) Reduced buoyancy
D) Altered barometric pressure
E) Enhanced sunlight exposure
Question 38:
How does nitrogen toxicity primarily affect cells during deep-sea diving?
A) It disrupts cell membrane integrity
B) It reduces blood flow
C) It causes ischaemia
D) It stabilizes ion channels
E) It stimulates protein breakdown
Question 39:
Why is fast resurfacing avoided during deep-sea diving?
A) It promotes oxygen delivery to tissues
B) It reduces the risk of nitrogen narcosis
C) It prevents the formation of nitrogen bubbles
D) It minimizes the risk of decompression sickness
E) It would cause nitrogen bubbles in the bloodstream, potentially leading to ischemia
Question 40:
What is the primary purpose of the nasal conchae in the nasal cavity?
Options:
A) To produce mucus for lubrication
B) To detect olfactory stimuli
C) To enhance vocal resonance
D) To increase the surface area for air contact
E) To support the nasal septum
Question 41:
Where do the posterior ethmoidal air cells drain into?
A) Superior concha
B) Middle meatus
C) Inferior concha
D) Nasolacrimal duct
E) Superior meatus
Question 42:
Where does the maxillary sinus drain into?
A) Superior concha
B) Middle meatus
C) Inferior concha
D) Nasolacrimal duct
E) Semilunar hiatus
Question 43:
Among the following structures, which one is not a component of Little’s area in the nasal cavity?
A) Anterior ethmoidal artery
B) posterior ethmoidal artery
C) superior labial artery
D) Sphenopalatine artery
E) Greater palatine artery
Question 44:
In the brainstem, where is the apneustic centre primarily located, playing a role in regulating breathing patterns?
A) Medulla oblongata
B) Midbrain
C) Pons
D) Hypothalamus
E) Cerebellum
Question 45:
According to Boyle’s Law, how is the pressure of a gas related to its volume, assuming constant temperature and amount of gas?
A) Pressure and volume are directly proportional.
B) Pressure and volume are inversely proportional.
C) Pressure remains constant as volume changes.
D) Pressure increases exponentially with volume.
E) Pressure decreases exponentially with volume.
Question 46:
Which peripheral chemoreceptors are primarily innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve (cranial nerve IX)?
A) Carotid bodies
B) Aortic bodies
C) Medullary chemoreceptors
D) Pulmonary chemoreceptors
E) J receptors
Question 47:
Obstructive pulmonary diseases are typically characterized by:
A) Increased lung compliance
B) Enlarged alveoli
C) Collapse of smaller airways
D) High expiratory flow rates
E) Decreased residual volume
Question 48:
In obstructive pulmonary diseases, such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), how is the FEV1:FVC (Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second to Forced Vital Capacity) ratio typically affected?
A) Increased FEV1:FVC ratio (FEV1:FVC is > 0.7)
B) Decreased FEV1:FVC ratio (FEV1:FVC is < 0.7)
C) Unchanged FEV1:FVC ratio
D) FEV1:FVC ratio is not applicable in obstructive diseases
E) FEV1 and FVC are both zero in obstructive diseases
Question 49:
In restrictive pulmonary diseases, such as interstitial lung diseases, how is the FEV1:FVC (Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second to Forced Vital Capacity) ratio typically affected?
A) Increased FEV1:FVC ratio (>0.8)
B) Decreased FEV1:FVC ratio
C) unchanged FEV1:FVC ratio
D) increased FEV1:FVC ratio (>0.7)
E) FEV1 and FVC are both zero in restrictive diseases
Question 50:
How many signals are typically required to fully activate T cells during an immune response?
A) One signal
B) Two signals
C) Three signals
D) Four signals
E) Five signals
Question 51:
During lung embryology, what surrounds the endoderm, forming the primitive lung bud?
A) Ectoderm
B) Splanchnic mesoderm
C) Pericardium
D) Yolk sac
E) Neuroectoderm
Question 52:
What significant event occurs during the pseudoglandular stage of lung development?
A) Formation of alveoli
B) Formation of respiratory bronchioles
C) Formation of terminal bronchioles
D) Formation of primitive alveolar ducts
E) Formation of surfactant-producing cells
Question 53:
Embryologically, from which germ layer does the pleura originate?
A) Endoderm
B) Ectoderm
C) Mesoderm
D) Ectomesenchyme
E) Neuroectoderm
Question 54:
In the human respiratory system, where is the last place where cartilage is found?
A) Trachea
B) Bronchi
C) Bronchioles
D) Terminal bronchioles
E) Terminal bronchi
Question 55:
In the human respiratory system, at which point does the BP segment begin?
A) Primary bronchi
B) Secondary bronchi
C) Tertiary bronchi
D) Terminal bronchus
E) Respiratory bronchioles
Question 56:
How does a fixed upper airway obstruction affect the flow-volume graph?
a) Causes a steeper initial rise in flow
b) Results in a more pronounced plateau phase
c) Leads to a longer rapid rise at the start
d) Causes a leftward shift of the graph
e) No longer exhibits a rapid rise at the start
Question 57:
What is the likely consequence of a defect in surfactant production in a foetus?
a) Increased lung compliance
b) Reduced lung compliance
c) Decreased alveolar surface area
d) Elevated pulmonary blood pressure
e) Enhanced foetal lung maturation
Question 58:
What does Dalton’s law state?
a) The total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of its individual gases.
b) The volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure.
c) The total pressure of a gas mixture is directly proportional to its volume.
d) Gas particles move randomly and collide with each other.
e) Gas pressure increases with increasing temperature.
Question 59:
What best describes what happens to the diffusion capacity of the lungs during moderate to intense exercise?
A) It decreases
B) It remains unchanged
C) It increases
D) It becomes irregular and unpredictable
E) It becomes linear and constant
Question 60:
Where does carbon dioxide (CO2) primarily bind to haemoglobin in the blood?
A) Haem iron within the haem groups.
B) Globin protein chains.
C) Porphyrin ring.
D) Carbonate ions.
E) Haemocyte located in plasma proteins.
Question 61:
During the Hamburger shift in red blood cells, which ion is exchanged for bicarbonate ions (HCO3-) to maintain electrochemical neutrality in the cell?
A) Sulphate ions (SO4 2-)
B) Nitrate ions (NO3-)
C) Calcium ions (Ca2+)
D) Phosphate ions (PO4 3-)
E) Chloride ions (Cl-)
Question 62:
Which of the following statements about haemoglobin’s binding affinity is correct?
a) Deoxyhaemoglobin has a greater affinity for H+ ions than oxyhaemoglobin.
b) Haemoglobin always has the same affinity for H+ ions, regardless of its oxygenation state.
c) Oxygenated haemoglobin has a greater affinity for H+ ions than deoxyhaemoglobin.
d) Haemoglobin’s binding affinity for H+ ions is solely determined by pH levels in the blood.
e) Foetal haemoglobin (HbF) has a lower affinity for O2 compared to adult haemoglobin.
Question 63:
A 12-year-old girl presents with chest pain and breathing difficulties. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals a pH of 7.2 (7.35-7.45), a partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) of 67 mmHg (35-45), and a bicarbonate (HCO3-) level of 24 mEq/L (22-26). What type of acid-base disturbance is primarily indicated by these values?
a) Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
b) Compensated respiratory acidosis
c) Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
d) Compensated metabolic acidosis
e) Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
Question 64:
An 8-year-old child presents with weight loss and dehydration. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals the following values in order: pH 7.24 (normal range: 7.35-7.45), partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) 22 mmHg (normal range: 35-45 mmHg), bicarbonate (HCO3-) 12 mEq/L (normal range: 22-26 mEq/L). What type of acid-base disturbance is primarily indicated by these values?
a) Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
b) Compensated respiratory acidosis
c) compensated metabolic acidosis
d) Partially compensated metabolic acidosis
e) Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
Question 65:
A 25-year-old individual presents with a persistent cough. Arterial blood gas analysis reveals the following values: pH 7.43 (normal range: 7.35-7.45), partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) 60 mmHg (normal range: 35-45 mmHg), bicarbonate (HCO3-) 32 mEq/L (normal range: 22-26 mEq/L). What type of acid-base disturbance is primarily indicated by these values?
a) Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
b) compensated metabolic acidosis
c) Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
d) Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis
e) Fully compensated respiratory acidosis
question 66: A 22-year-old patient with fever presents with altered blood gas values: pH of 7.2 (normal range: 7.35-7.45), a partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) of 60 mmHg (normal range: 35-45 mmHg), and a bicarbonate (HCO3-) level of 19 mEq/L (normal range: 22-26 mEq/L). What type of acid-base disturbance is primarily indicated by these values?
a) Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
b) Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
c) Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
d) Compensated metabolic acidosis
e) Uncompensated mixed acidosis
Question 67:
What is the primary function of erythropoietin (EPO)?
a) Regulation of blood glucose levels
b) Stimulation of muscle growth
c) Promotion of red blood cell production
d) Inhibition of blood clotting
e) Enhancement of bone density
Question 68:
What happens to the oxygen dissociation curve when individuals ascend to high altitudes where oxygen levels are lower?
a) The curve shifts to the right, indicating decreased oxygen affinity of haemoglobin.
b) The curve shifts to the left, indicating increased oxygen affinity of haemoglobin.
c) The curve remains unchanged, with no shift in oxygen affinity.
d) The curve becomes steeper, making it more difficult for haemoglobin to release oxygen.
e) The curve shifts to the left causing a decreased oxygen affinity of haemoglobin and causing more CO2 to bind to globin
Question 69:
What is the effect of hypoxia on the pulmonary vasculature in the lungs?
a) Hypoxia decreases pulmonary vascular resistance.
b) Hypoxia has no effect on pulmonary vascular resistance.
c) Hypoxia increases pulmonary vascular resistance.
d) Hypoxia causes pulmonary vasodilation.
e) None of the above.
Question 70:
At high altitudes, individuals often experience respiratory alkalosis due to increased ventilation. What effect does this alkalotic condition have on the production of 2,3-DPG (2,3-diphosphoglycerate) in red blood cells?
a) Alkalosis increases the production of 2,3-DPG.
b) Alkalosis decreases the production of 2,3-DPG.
c) Alkalosis has no effect on 2,3-DPG production.
d) Alkalosis initially increases but then decreases 2,3-DPG production.
e) It has a modulating effect on production of 2,3-DPG.
Question 71:
In response to respiratory alkalosis caused by increased ventilation at high altitudes, the kidneys play a role in maintaining acid-base balance. What is the primary action of the kidneys in this situation?
a) Increased reabsorption of bicarbonate (HCO3-)
b) Increased excretion of bicarbonate (HCO3-)
c) Decreased secretion of bicarbonate (HCO3-)
d) Decreased secretion of hydrogen ions (H+)
e) Increased secretion of hydrogen ions (H+)
Question 72:
In individuals exposed to high-altitude hypoxia for an extended period, which adaptive process plays a crucial role in increasing oxygen delivery to tissues?
a) Erythrocyte apoptosis
b) Haemostasis inhibition
c) Angiogenesis
d) Bronchoconstriction
e) Increased blood viscosity
Question 73:
During prenatal development, where is the primary site for gaseous exchange?
a) Lungs
b) Umbilical cord
c) Heart
d) Liver
e) Placenta
Question 74:
Why is breathing inhibited during foetal development and to prevent the inhalation of what…
a) Amniotic fluid
b) Umbilical cord
c) Blood
d) Surfactant
e) Foetal blood
Question 75:
What type of respiratory disease can obesity contribute to?
a) Obstructive lung disease
b) Restrictive lung disease
c) emphysema
d) Autoimmune lung disease
e) bronchitis
Question 76:
What chemical stimulus promotes surfactant production by type 2 pneumocytes in the alveoli, especially during birth?
a) Acetylcholine
b) Carbonic Acid
c) Cortisol
d) Nitric oxide
e) Prostaglandins
Question 77:
What is the primary effect of epinephrine acting on β2-adrenergic receptors within the respiratory system?
a) Bronchoconstriction
b) Increased mucus production
c) Bronchodilation
d) Vasoconstriction
e) Reduced ventilation
Question 78:
In the context of respiratory defence, what is the primary role of opsonins?
a) Stimulate mucus production
b) Neutralize toxins released by pathogens
c) Promote bronchoconstriction
d) Enhance phagocytosis via marking
e) promote the production of antibodies
Question 79:
In individuals with cystic fibrosis (CF), which of the following best describes the primary issue related to CFTR channels?
a) Underproduction of mucus in the airways
b) Increased activity of the immune system
c) Airway Surface Liquid (ASL) too large, inhibiting airflow
d) Airway Surface Liquid (ASL) too small, impeding ciliary function
e) Excessive production of surfactant in the lungs
Question 80:
Which immune cells are primarily responsible for causing an inflammatory response in the respiratory system, especially when the system comes into contact with pathogens?
a) T cells
b) B cells
c) alveolar Macrophages
d) Neutrophils
e) Eosinophils
Question 81:
Which bacterial strain is a major contributor to the formation of colonies and chronic respiratory infections in individuals with Cystic Fibrosis?
a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Escherichia coli
c) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d) Staphylococcus aureus
e) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Question 82:
In allergic rhinitis, which plays a central role in the immune response and will be found in high levels in serum?
a) IgA
b) alveolar Macrophage
c) B lymphocytes
d) Neutrophils
e) IgE
Question 83: In which nasal structure are olfactory sensory neurons (bipolar neurons) primarily located?
a) Sphenoethmoidal recess
b) Nasal conchae (turbinates)
c) Nasal septum
d) Nasopharynx
e) Paranasal sinuses
Question 84:
In oxygen transport, what factor primarily influences the release of oxygen from hemoglobin to peripheral tissues?
a) Decreased CO2
b) Higher tissue PO2 levels
c) Decreased temperature
d) Increased 2,3-DPG
e) Increased pH
Question 85:
During the pseudoglandular stage of lung development, which structure primarily forms?
a) Bronchial tree
b) Lung lobes
c) Trachea
d) Paired cartilages
e) Respiratory Bronchioles
Question 86:
If you have a gas at an initial pressure of 2 atm and you decrease its volume from 4 liters to 2 liters while keeping the temperature constant, what will happen to the pressure, according to Boyle’s Law?
a) The pressure remains at 2 atm.
b) The pressure decreases to 1 atm.
c) The pressure increases to 4 atm.
d) The pressure decreases to 0.5 atm.
e) The pressure increases to 8 atm.
Question 87:
At which vertebral level does the trachea bifurcate into the left and right main bronchi?
a) T3
b) T4
c) T5
d) T6
e) T7
Question 88:
What makes up the posterior border of the trachea?
a) Nucleus pulposus
b) Cricotracheal ligament
c) Laryngopharynx
d) Arytenoid muscle
e) Trachealis
Question 89:
In the trachea, what shape do the cartilage rings typically have?
a) O-shaped
b) Oval
c) C-shaped
d) Spiral
e) Helix
Question 90:
In the respiratory zone of the lungs, where does the first part of this zone begin?
a) Respiratory bronchioles
b) Terminal bronchioles
c) Tertiary bronchi
d) Alveolar sacs
e) Trachea
Question 91:
Which part of the brain primarily controls voluntary breathing?
a) Cerebellum
b) Pons
c) Cerebral cortex
d) DRG of medulla oblongata
e) VRG of medulla oblongata
Question 92:
During a 5-kilometer (5K) race, which muscles are primarily engaged during expiration (exhalation)?
a) Diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
b) Diaphragm and scalene muscles
c) Rectus abdominis and external intercostal muscles
d) Rectus abdominis and internal intercostal muscles
e) Transversus abdominis and serratus anterior muscles
Question 93:
Which lung volume represents the maximum amount of air a person can exhale after taking the deepest breath possible?
a) Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
b) Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV)
c) Vital Capacity (VC)
d) Residual Volume (RV)
e) Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
Question 94:
Which respiratory muscle primarily assists with forced expiration during activities like coughing or sneezing?
a) Diaphragm
b) External intercostal muscles
c) Internal intercostal muscles
d) Sternocleidomastoid
e) Scalene muscles
Question 95:
Which gas law describes the relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas while keeping the temperature constant?
a) Charles’s Law
b) Boyle’s Law
c) Dalton’s Law
d) Avogadro’s Law
e) Graham’s Law
Question 96:
During an asthma attack, which of the following physiological changes occurs in the airways?
a) Bronchoconstriction
b) Increased compliance
c) Decreased mucus production
d) Lower airway resistance
e) Increased functional residual capacity (FRC)
Question 97:
Which of the following best represents the primary function of the pneumotaxic centre in the pons?
a) Initiating inspiration
b) Regulating the depth of breathing
c) Adjusting respiratory rate based on blood oxygen levels
d) Fine-tuning respiratory rhythm by inhibiting the inspiratory centre
e) Stimulates the inspiratory centre (DRG)
Question 98:
Which type of pneumocyte is primarily responsible for producing pulmonary surfactant in the alveoli?
a) Type I pneumocyte
b) Type II pneumocyte
c) Type III pneumocyte
d) Type A pneumocyte
e) Type B pneumocyte
Question 99:
Which of the following factors contributes to increased airway resistance?
a) Decreased mucus production
b) Bronchoconstriction
c) Reduced airway inflammation
d) Increased alveolar surface area
e) Normal responsiveness of smooth muscle
Question 100:
Which of the following statements best describes the function of type I pneumocytes in the alveoli?
a) Secretion of pulmonary surfactant
b) Production of mucus to trap foreign particles
c) Gas exchange, facilitating oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide removal
d) Proliferation and repair of alveolar tissue
e) Detoxification of harmful substances
Question 101:
What is the main function of the cilia lining the respiratory tract?
a) Gas exchange
b) Filtration of air
c) Production of mucus
d) Secretion of hormones
e) Thermoregulation
Question 102:
Which lymphatic duct drains lymph from the left upper limb and the entire lower body?
a) Right lymphatic duct
b) Thoracic duct
c) Subclavian duct
d) Cisterna chyli
e) Lumbar duct
Question 103:
Where does the azygous vein primarily drain into?
a) Brochiocephalic trunk
b) Pulmonary artery
c) Right atrium
d) Superior vena cava (SVC)
e) Pulmonary vein
Question 104:
What is the primary function of the thymus gland?
a) Production of respiratory enzymes
b) Regulation of bicarbonate levels
c) Maturation of T lymphocytes (T cells)
d) Production of T lymphocytes
e) Filtration of blood cells
Question 105:
Among the following structures, which is the most anterior in the mediastinum?
a) Trachea
b) Oesophagus
c) Aorta
d) Brachiocephalic artery
e) Common carotid artery
Question 106:
At which spinal level does the aorta pass through the diaphragm via the aortic hiatus?
a) T6
b) T8
c) T10
d) T12
e) L2
Question 107:
In relation to the lung hilum, the phrenic nerve passes:
a) Posterior
b) Anterior
c) Superior
d) Inferior
e) Medial
Question 108:
Which statement accurately describes the innervation of the larynx by the recurrent laryngeal nerve?
a) The recurrent laryngeal nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle exclusively.
b) It provides motor innervation to all intrinsic laryngeal muscles and sensory innervation to the mucous membrane below the vocal cords.
c) The recurrent laryngeal nerve only innervates the vocal cords.
d) It supplies sensory fibres to the epiglottis and motor fibres to the diaphragm.
e) None of the above.
Question 109:
Which nerve innervates the cricothyroid muscle?
a) Recurrent laryngeal nerve
b) Vagus nerve
c) Glossopharyngeal nerve
d) Internal branch of superior laryngeal nerve
e) External branch of the superior laryngeal nerve
Question 110:
What type of epithelium lines the trachea?
a) Simple squamous
b) Pseudostratified Cuboidal
c) Pseudostratified columnar
d) Simple cuboidal
e) Transitional epithelium
Question 111:
A 67-year-old man with COPD is evaluated for a lung transplant. Which of the following tests would best evaluate his respiratory muscle function?
A) Tidal volume
B) Forced expiratory volume
C) Maximal inspiratory pressure
D) Total lung capacity
E) Diffusing capacity of the lungs
Question 112) A 60-year-old man undergoes a bronchoscopy and biopsy of a lung nodule. The procedure irritates the airway and triggers coughing. Which of the following best describes the physical mechanism of coughing?
A) Activation of stretch receptors in the airway
B) Stimulation of the pharyngeal reflex
C) Irritation of nerves in the larynx
D) Phrenic nerve irritation
E) Disruption of surfactant in the alveoli
Question 113) A 6-year-old girl presents with recurrent sinus infections and frequent colds. Testing identifies a rare genetic defect impairing ciliary function in her airway epithelial cells. This will primarily affect which normal lung defense mechanism?
A) Mucus secretion
B) Alveolar macrophage function
C) Cough reflex sensitivity
D) Mucociliary clearance
E) IgA production
Question 114) A 45-year-old woman with cystic fibrosis has progression of her lung disease. Which of the following airway surface liquid abnormalities contributes most to her recurrent infections?
A) Increased mucus secretion
B) Impaired chloride transport
C) Decreased pH
D) Abnormal sodium absorption
E) Decreased bicarbonate secretion
Question 115) A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a 2-week history of progressive shortness of breath, cough, and wheezing. She is diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following cells is most important for clearing this bacterial lung infection at first interaction?
A) Helper T cells
B) Cytotoxic T cells
C) Regulatory T cells
D) Alveolar macrophages
E) Neutrophils
Question 116) A 6-year-old boy has frequent bouts of wheezing, cough, and respiratory infections. Testing shows elevated IgE and eosinophilia. Which cells are most likely participating in the pathologic immune response in his airways?
A) Mast cells
B) Neutrophils
C) Macrophages
D) B lymphocytes
E) Natural killer cells
Question 117) A 67-year-old man with 50 pack-years of smoking is found to have lung carcinoma. Which immune deficiency likely contributed most to his risk of developing lung cancer?
A) Reduced mucosal IgA
B) Impaired macrophage function
C) Loss of TLR signaling
D) Defective T cell responses
E) Lower complement activity
Question 118) A newborn baby girl delivered at 35 weeks gestation develops significant respiratory distress shortly after birth. Chest x-ray shows diffuse reticulogranular opacities. She likely has deficiency of which of the following?
A) Laminin
B) Surfactant
C) Clara cells
D) Alveolar macrophages
E) Mucociliary escalator
Question 119) A newborn baby girl has a complex congenital heart defect. Prenatal ultrasound at 18 weeks gestation showed normal lung development. This suggests normal formation of which of the following embryonic lung structures?
A) Tracheoesophageal septum
B) Pleuroperitoneal canals
C) Lung buds
D) Primary bronchi
E) Secondary bronchi
Question 120) A baby boy born at 30 weeks gestation develops neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. He likely has deficiency in production of which of the following lung proteins?
A) Mucin
B) Tubulin
C) Cadherin
D) Surfactant protein B
E) Antiprotease
Question 121) A 6-month-old infant presents with failure to thrive and respiratory distress. Chest x-ray shows diffuse pulmonary infiltrates. Lung biopsy reveals abnormal type II alveolar cells lacking lamellar bodies. This infant likely has deficient production of which substance?
A) Mucin
B) Surfactant
C) Antiprotease
D) Interleukin-1
E) Complement
Question 122) A 50-year-old smoker is diagnosed with emphysema. Which of the following gas exchange abnormalities is his primary functional impairment?
A) Ventilation-perfusion mismatch
B) Diffusion limitation
C) Shunting
D) Low inspired pO2
E) Reduced hemoglobin affinity
.
Question 123) A 28-year-old man suffers a pneumothorax, causing 50% collapse of his right lung. How will this physiologic alteration most significantly affect his pulmonary gas exchange?
A) Increased shunting in the right lung
B) Impaired diffusion in the right lung
C) Ventilation-perfusion mismatch
D) Elevated alveolar pCO2
E) Metabolic acidosis
Question 124) A 67-year-old woman with severe COPD presents with dyspnea and confusion. Arterial blood gas shows:
pH 7.28 (normal 7.35-7.45)
PaCO2 58 mmHg (normal 35-45 mmHg)
HCO3 32 mEq/L (normal 22-26 mEq/L)
This blood gas pattern indicates which acid-base disorder?
A) Uncompensated Metabolic acidosis
B)Partially compensated Metabolic alkalosis
C) Partially compensated Respiratory acidosis
D) compensated Respiratory alkalosis
Question 125) A 28-year-old woman has diabetic ketoacidosis with arterial pH 7.1, HCO3- 12 mEq/L, and PaCO2 28 mmHg. As she improves with treatment, which finding indicates the lungs contributing to resolution of her acidosis?
A) pH 7.35, HCO3- 18 mEq/L, PaCO2 40 mmHg
B) pH 7.28, HCO3- 18 mEq/L, PaCO2 32 mmHg
C) pH 7.32, HCO3- 20 mEq/L, PaCO2 36 mmHg
D) pH 7.45, HCO3- 25 mEq/L, PaCO2 45 mmHg
E) pH 7.5, HCO3- 30 mEq/L, PaCO2 50 mmHg
Question 126) A hospitalized patient has a central venous catheter sampling mixed venous blood. Which blood gas values reflect optimal pulmonary gas exchange?
A) High O2, low CO2
B) High O2, high CO2
C) Low O2, low CO2
D) Low O2, high CO2
E) Equal O2 and CO2
Question 127) Which type of vaccine contains preformed antibodies that confer immediate but temporary protection?
A) Conjugate vaccine
B) Live attenuated vaccine
C) Inactivated vaccine
D) Passive vaccine
E) Subunit vaccine
Question 128) Which type of vaccine contains a weakened form of a live pathogen that still activates immune responses?
A) Subunit
B) Toxoid
C) Conjugate
D) Passive
E) Live attenuated
Question 129) Which type of vaccine links a weak polysaccharide antigen to a stronger protein carrier to improve immunogenicity?
A) Inactivated
B) Subunit
C) DNA
D) Conjugate
Question 130) Which type of vaccine contains only the antigenic parts of a pathogen, not the whole organism?
A) Live
B) Inactivated
C) Conjugate
D) Subunit
E) Passive
Question 131) Which of the following best describes the advantage of a conjugate vaccine over a plain polysaccharide vaccine?
A) Conjugate vaccines provide longer-lasting immunity.
B) Conjugate vaccines tend to be cheaper
C) Conjugate vaccines contain additional adjuvants.
D) Conjugate vaccines cover a wider variety of strains.
E) Conjugate vaccines have fewer side effects.
Question 132) Asthma is known to be an obstructive disease, what would you expect to occur in an asthma patient
A) decrease in FVC
B) FEV1/FVC >0.7
C) A decrease in FEV1
D) Bronchodilation
E) A thick sticky mucus lining the airways
Med Wiz 