Urogenital Block MCQs

Urogenital

Question 1:

Which of the following structures carries blood directly from the renal artery into the renal cortex?

A) Interlobar artery

B) Arcuate artery

C) Segmental artery

D) Efferent arteriole

E) Interlobular artery/ Cortical radiate artery

Question 2:

Which of the following cell types is responsible for the filtration of blood in the renal corpuscle?

A) Podocytes

B) Principal cells

C) Mesangial cells

D) Macula densa cells

E) Juxtaglomerular (granular) cells

Question 3:

In which renal structure does the majority of tubular reabsorption occur?

A) Loop of Henle

B) Distal convoluted tubule

C) Proximal convoluted tubule

D) Collecting duct

E) Renal pelvis

Question 4:

What is the primary function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA)?

A) Regulation of blood pressure

B) Filtration of blood

C) Production of erythropoietin

D) Regulation of urine concentration

E) Secretion of aldosterone

Question 5:

Which of the following segments of the nephron is impermeable to water?

A) Proximal convoluted tubule

B) Descending limb of the loop of Henle

C) Ascending limb of the loop of Henle

D) Distal convoluted tubule

E) Collecting duct

Question 6:

What is the typical value of blood colloid osmotic pressure in a healthy individual?

A) 10 mmHg

B) 18 mmHg

C) 32 mmHg

D) 60 mmHg

E) 625 mmHg

Question 7:

What is the primary stimulus for the production of erythropoietin (EPO)?

A) Hyperglycaemia

B) Hypoglycaemia

C) Hypoxia

D) Hypercapnia

E) Acidosis

Question 8:

Which blood vessel supplies oxygenated blood directly to the medullary region of the kidney?

A) Interlobar artery

B) Arcuate artery

C) Segmental artery

D) Interlobular artery

E) Afferent arteriole

Question 9:

Which part of the nephron is responsible for the secretion of hydrogen ions and reabsorption of bicarbonate ions in the urine?

A) Proximal convoluted tubule

B) Distal convoluted tubule

C) Loop of Henle

D) Collecting duct

E) Glomerulus

Question 10:

How does vasopressin primarily regulate water reabsorption in the kidneys?

A) By increasing sodium reabsorption in the distal tubules

B) By decreasing potassium excretion in the collecting ducts

C) By directly stimulating the production of aldosterone

D) By upregulating the expression of aquaporin channels

E) By inhibiting the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Question 11:

Which of the following substances is primarily reabsorbed in the descending limb of the loop of Henle?

A) Sodium ions

B) Potassium ions

C) Urea

D) Glucose

E) Water

Question 12:

What is the primary function of the cremaster muscle?

A) Rotation of the testes

B) Constriction of the scrotal skin

C) Elevation of the scrotum and testes towards the body

D) Relaxation of the scrotal skin

E) Stabilization of the testes within the scrotum

Question 13:

What is the primary function of the collecting ducts in the nephron?

A) Filtration of blood

B) Reabsorption of glucose

C) Reabsorption of water

D) Secretion of renin

E) Regulation of blood pressure

Question 14:

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of the renal corpuscle’s histology?

A) Simple squamous epithelium

B) Transitional epithelium

C) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

D) Simple cuboidal epithelium

E) Stratified squamous epithelium

Question 15:

What is the primary hormone responsible for initiating and maintaining lactation, including milk production in the mammary glands during pregnancy and post-partum?

A) Oestrogen

B) Progesterone

C) Prolactin

D) Oxytocin

E) Lactase

Question 16:

Which layer of the urinary bladder wall contains the detrusor muscle responsible for contraction during micturition?

A) Mucosa

B) Submucosa

C) Muscularis

D) Serosa

E) Adventitia

Question 17:

What is the primary role of the internal urethral sphincter during the process of micturition?

A) Initiating the micturition reflex

B) Relaxing to allow urine to flow into the urethra

C) Contracting to prevent involuntary urination

D) Sensing bladder distension

E) Initiating parasympathetic nerve signals

Question 18:

At what percentage increase in creatinine levels is indicative of kidney damage?

A) 10%

B) 30%

C) 50%

D) 70%

E) 90%

Question 19:

Which embryonic structure gives rise to the female reproductive tract, including the ovaries, uterus, cervix, and upper vagina?

A) Wolffian duct (Mesonephric duct)

B) Paramesonephric duct (Mullerian duct)

C) Urethral fold

D) Labioscrotal swelling

E) Phallus

Question 20:

What is the primary function of the cervix in the female reproductive system?

A) Production of oestrogen

B) Ovulation

C) Fertilization of the egg

D) Passage for sperm into the uterus

E) Secretion of progesterone

Question 21:

Which layer of the bladder wall is responsible for producing the mucous lining that protects the inner surface of the bladder from urine?

A) Serosa

B) Submucosa

C) Muscularis

D) Mucosa

E) Adventitia

Question 22:

In females, what is the approximate length of the urethra, and where is it anatomically located in relation to the vagina?

A) 1-2 cm, posterior to the vagina

B) 3-4 cm, anterior to the vagina

C) 5-6 cm, parallel to the vagina

D) 7-8 cm, surrounding the vaginal canal

E) 9-10 cm, within the vaginal wall

Question 23:

Which part of the male urethra passes through the corpus spongiosum of the penis and carries both urine and semen?

A) Prostatic urethra

B) Membranous urethra

C) Spongy (penile) urethra

D) Preprostatic urethra (intramural)

E) Postprostatic urethra

Question 24:

Which structure in the female reproductive system is responsible for the fertilization of the egg and the early development of the embryo?

A) Ovary

B) Uterus

C) Cervix

D) Fallopian tube (oviduct)

E) Vagina

Question 25:

During embryological development, what structures fuse to form the uterus, cervix, and upper part of the vagina in females?

A) Paramesonephric duct and Wolffian duct

B) Urogenital sinus and Müllerian duct

C) Mesonephric tubules and Müllerian duct

D) Genital tubercle and Urethral folds

E) Sinus tubercle and Paramesonephric duct

Question 26:

How does the female pelvis compare to that of the male pelvis?

A) The pubic angle is narrower in the female pelvis compared to the male pelvis.

B) The pubic angle is wider in the female pelvis compared to the male pelvis.

C) The female pelvis is more hollow compared to the male pelvis.

D) The female pelvis is denser compared to the male pelvis.

E) The pubic angle varies widely among individuals and cannot be reliably distinguished between sexes.

Question 27:

During embryological development, the gubernaculum plays a crucial role in the descent of the testis. What is the gubernaculum’s primary function in this process?

A) It anchors the testis within the abdominal cavity.

B) It guides the testis through the inguinal canal.

C) It promotes the growth of the testis.

D) It secretes testosterone.

E) It supports sperm production.

Question 28:

Which anatomical structure is responsible an erection in males?

A) Corpus spongiosum

B) Corpus cavernosa

C) Prostate gland

D) Epididymis

E) Vas deferens

Question 29:

How do the male and female pelvic floors differ in terms of sphincter control?

A) Males have better sphincter control than females.

B) Females have better sphincter control than males.

C) Both males and females have similar sphincter control.

D) Males lack sphincters in the pelvic floor.

E) None of the above

Question 30:

Which of the following structures within the breast is responsible for producing milk during lactation and is composed of glandular tissue and ducts?

A) Lactiferous sinuses

B) Lactiferous ducts

C) Areola

D) Myoepithelial cells

E) Alveoli

Question 31:

Which of the following best describes the surface anatomy of the male breast, including the common location of the nipple-areola complex?

A) Located at the 2nd intercostal space, medial to the midclavicular line

B) Located at the 4th intercostal space, lateral to the midaxillary line

C) Located at the 5th intercostal space, along the sternum

D) Located at the 8th intercostal space, near the costal margin

E) Located at the 10th intercostal space, along the inframammary fold

Question 32:

How many stages are typically recognized in the process of labour and childbirth, with each stage characterized by specific events and physiological changes?

A) Two

B) Three

C) Four

D) Five

E) Six

Question 33:

Which of these is NOT derived from the mesonephric duct?

a) Epididymis

b) Vas deferens

c) Prostate gland

d) Seminal vesicle

e) Ejaculatory duct

Question 34:

When does the ureteric bud begin the branching cascade?

A) Week 4

B) Week 5

C) Week 6

D) Week 7

E) Week 8

Question 35:

Which external genital structure in females is analogous to the glans of the penis?

A) Labia majora

B) Labia minora

C) Clitoris

D) Vaginal orifice

E) Hymen

Question 36:

What is the primary function of the puborectalis muscle in the female pelvic floor?

A) Supporting the bladder

B) Supporting the uterus

C) Maintaining continence of faeces

D) Facilitating urination

E) Assisting in childbirth

Question 37:

During the descent of the testis in males, the gubernaculum guides the testis through a passage in the abdominal wall. What is the name of this passage?

A) Inguinal canal

B) Femoral canal

C) Ischioanal fossa

D) Obturator canal

E) Sciatic foramen

Question 38:

Which structure surrounds and protects the testes, regulates their temperature, and contracts to raise the testes in response to cold temperatures or arousal?

A) Epididymis

B) Dartos muscle

C) Cremaster muscle

D) Tunica vaginalis

E) Vas deferens

Question 39:

Which male reproductive organ produces the majority of ejaculate, including enzymes and nutrients to support sperm function?

A) Testis

B) Epididymis

C) Seminal Vesicle

D) Prostate gland

E) Bulbourethral gland

Question 40:

Which structure in the female external genitalia covers the vaginal opening and may be ruptured during first sexual intercourse or childbirth?

A) Labia majora

B) Labia minora

C) Clitoris

D) Hymen

E) Bartholin’s glands

Question 41:

During embryological development, which structure is the earliest to appear and is considered the most primitive kidney-like structure?

A) Pronephros

B) Mesonephros

C) Metanephros

D) Nephron

E) Ureteric bud

Question 42:

What is the final stage of kidney development in which the functional nephrons are formed, and it becomes the definitive adult kidney?

A) Pronephros

B) Mesonephros

C) Metanephros

D) Ureteric bud

E) Cloaca

Question 44:

What is the embryological origin of the urinary bladder?

A) Mesoderm

B) Endoderm

C) Ectoderm

D) Germ cells

E) None of the above

Question 45:

Which embryonic germ layer gives rise to the urogenital tract, including the kidneys, ureters, and reproductive organs?

A) Ectoderm

B) Endoderm

C) Mesoderm

D) Neuroectoderm

E) Epiblast

Question 46:

During embryonic development, which structure gives rise to the testis in males and the ovary in females?

A) Urethra

B) Gonadal ridge

C) Wolffian duct

D) Mullerian duct

E) Cloaca

Question 47:

Which of the following structures is the precursor to the male internal genitalia, including the epididymis, vas deferens, and seminal vesicles, during embryonic development?

A) Wolffian duct

B) Mullerian duct

C) Urogenital sinus

D) Gonadal ridge

E) Urethra

Question 48:

In chromosomal sex determination, individuals with Turner syndrome typically have which chromosomal configuration?

A) XX

B) XY

C) XXY

D) XO

E) XYY

Question 49:

Which of the following processes primarily occurs in the renal corpuscle of the kidney?

A) Tubular reabsorption

B) Tubular secretion

C) Filtration

D) Concentration of urine

E) Regulation of blood pressure

Question 50:

What is the main function of tubular reabsorption in the kidney?

A) To filter waste products from the blood

B) To excrete excess glucose

C) To selectively return essential substances from the filtrate to the blood

D) To maintain osmotic balance

E) To regulate blood pressure

Question 51:

What is the main function of the filtration membrane in the renal corpuscle?

A) To absorb nutrients from the filtrate

B) To secrete waste products into the urine

C) To prevent large proteins from entering the renal tubules

D) To regulate blood pressure

E) To produce hormones

Question 52:

What term describes the kidney’s ability to maintain a relatively constant renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) despite changes in systemic blood pressure?

A) Renal secretion

B) Tubular reabsorption

C) Osmoregulation

D) Myogenic Autoregulation

E) Glomerular filtration

Question 53:

What is the Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR), and how is it primarily regulated in the kidneys?

A) GFR is the rate at which urine is produced and is regulated by hormonal feedback.

B) GFR is the rate at which blood is filtered by the kidneys, and it is primarily regulated by autoregulation and hormonal mechanisms.

C) GFR is the rate at which blood is returned to the heart, and it is regulated by the renin-angiotensin system.

D) GFR is the rate at which blood is pumped by the heart, and it is regulated by the sympathetic nervous system.

E) GFR is the rate at which urine is excreted, and it is regulated by the osmoregulatory system.

Question 54:

What is the primary function of tubular secretion in the kidney?

A) To filter waste products from the blood

B) To selectively return essential substances from the filtrate to the blood

C) To excrete excess water

D) To regulate blood pressure

E) To remove additional waste products and drugs from the blood into the urine

Question 55:

Which of the following is NOT a component of the filtration membrane in the renal corpuscle?

A) Fenestrated capillary endothelium

B) Basement membrane

C) Podocyte foot processes

D) Renal tubules

E) Filtration slits

Question 56: How is the Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) primarily regulated through hormonal mechanisms?**

A) By the release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) to increase GFR

B) By the secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) to decrease GFR

C) By the action of aldosterone to increase GFR

D) By the renin-angiotensin system to adjust GFR based on blood pressure

E) By the release of insulin to regulate GFR

Question 57:

Which of the following describes the typical composition of urine in diabetic individuals?

A) Decreased glucose levels, increased protein levels, normal water content

B) Increased glucose levels, decreased protein levels, normal water content

C) Decreased glucose levels, decreased protein levels, increased water content

D) Increased glucose levels, increased protein levels, increased water content

E) Increased glucose levels, normal protein levels, increased water content

Question 58:

Which hormone plays a key role in regulating water reabsorption directly in the renal tubules and, consequently, urine concentration?

A) Insulin

B) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

C) Aldosterone

D) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

E) Renin

Question 59:

What is the primary mechanism responsible for the movement of chloride ions in response to acid-base disturbances in the bloodstream?

A) Chloride pumping by active transport across cell membranes

B) Chloride diffusion through aquaporin channels

C) Chloride exchange with bicarbonate ions in red blood cells

D) Chloride binding to haemoglobin molecules

E) Chloride excretion by the kidneys

Question 60:

What is the primary role of the hormone aldosterone in fluid and electrolyte balance?

A) To promote sodium reabsorption in the renal tubules

B) To increase urine output

C) To inhibit sodium reabsorption in the nephron

D) To decrease blood pressure

E) To stimulate atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) release

Question 61:

Which hormone acts as a diuretic, promoting the excretion of sodium and water in the urine, and is released in response to high blood pressure and stretching?

A) Renin

B) Aldosterone

C) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

D) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

E) Angiotensin II

Question 62:

Which of the following conditions can lead to acidosis, a disturbance in acid-base balance?

A) Hyperventilation

B) Excessive consumption of acidic foods

C) Renal failure

D) Increased temperature

E) Dehydration

Question 63:

Which component of the Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System (RAAS) is responsible for converting angiotensinogen into angiotensin I in response to decreased blood pressure or low sodium levels?

A) Aldosterone

B) Angiotensin II

C) Renin

D) Angiotensin receptor

E) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)

Question 64:

What is the primary role of the hormone atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) in fluid and electrolyte balance?

A) To promote sodium reabsorption in the renal tubules

B) To stimulate aldosterone release

C) To decrease blood volume and lower blood pressure

D) To increase water reabsorption in the renal tubules

E) To regulate acid-base balance

Question 65:

Which of the following is a direct clinical measurement in patients regularly used to assess renal function by determining the volume of plasma from which a substance is completely removed by the kidneys in a given time period?

A) Inulin

B) Creatinine clearance

C) Tubular reabsorption rate

D) Aldosterone and ADH levels

E) PAH

Question 66:

What is the primary function of erythropoietin (EPO) in the renal system?

A) To regulate blood pressure

B) To stimulate aldosterone release

C) To promote sodium reabsorption

D) To regulate blood glucose levels

E) To stimulate red blood cell production in response to hypoxia

Question 67:

Which of the following clinical measurements is used to assess kidney disfunction and is often indicative of renal disease?

A) Creatinine clearance

B) Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

C) Hemoglobin concentration

D) Proteinuria

E) Urea concentration

Question 68:

During which phase of the menstrual cycle is the uterine lining shed, leading to menstruation?

A) Follicular phase

B) Ovulation phase

C) Luteal phase

D) Secretory phase

E) Proliferative phase

Question 69:

What hormone surge triggers the process of ovulation during the menstrual cycle?

A) Oestrogen surge

B) Progesterone surge

C) FSH surge

D) LH surge

E) hCG surge

Question 70:

Which phase of the menstrual cycle is characterized by a rise in progesterone levels?

A) Follicular phase

B) Ovulation phase

C) Luteal phase

D) Secretory phase

E) Proliferative phase

Question 71:

Which hormone is responsible for maintaining the uterine lining (endometrium) during the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle to prepare for potential implantation of a fertilized egg?

A) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

C) Estrogen

D) Progesterone

E) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Question 72:

What is the primary hormone responsible for thickening the uterine lining (endometrium) during the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle?

A) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

C) Oestrogen

D) Progesterone

E) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Question 73:

Which of the following is a congenital heart defect that can occur during the fetal period and involves a large hole in the septum (wall) between the heart’s two upper chambers?

A) Tetralogy of Fallot

B) Ventricular septal defect (VSD)

C) Atrial septal defect (ASD)

D) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)

E) Coarctation of the aorta

Question 74:

Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulating the production of testosterone in the male reproductive system, acting on the Leydig cells of the testes?

A) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

C) Progesterone

D) Estrogen

E) Prolactin

Question 75:

Which hormone, primarily secreted by the placenta, plays a central role in maintaining pregnancy by preventing uterine contractions and supporting the uterine lining during the first trimester?

A) Luteinizing hormone (LH)

B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

C) Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

D) Estrogen

E) Progesterone

Question 76:

What is the term for the interaction where the ureteric bud induces the differentiation of the metanephric blastema into nephron structures, and vice versa, ensuring coordinated kidney development?

a) Paramesonephric duct signalling

b) Reciprocal induction

c) Mesonephric duct apoptosis

d) Pronephros degeneration

e) Wolffian duct differentiation

Question 77:

During kidney development, which structure primarily acts as the precursor for the nephron, including the renal corpuscle and tubular segments?

a) Pronephros

b) Mesonephros

c) Metanephric blastema

d) Ureteric bud

e) Paramesonephric duct

Question 78:

Which of the following structures is primarily located in the renal cortex?

a) Loop of Henle

b) Collecting ducts

c) Glomerulus

d) Renal pelvis

e) Minor calyces

Question 79:

What anatomical landmarks define the location of the kidneys in the human body?

a) Between the 7th and 9th thoracic vertebrae

b) Between the 1st and 3rd lumbar vertebrae

c) Between the 12th thoracic and 3rd lumbar vertebrae

d) Between the 9th and 11th thoracic vertebrae

e) Between the 2nd and 4th lumbar vertebrae

Question 80:

Which of the following points are common sites for ureteral constriction where kidney stones may become lodged?

a) Ureteropelvic junction, iliac crest, and bladder neck

b) Ureteropelvic junction, crossing over the iliac vessels, and ureterovesical junction

c) Ureteropelvic junction, renal cortex, and bladder neck

d) Ureterovesical junction, renal medulla, and iliac crest

e) Crossing over the iliac vessels, bladder neck, and renal pelvis

Question 81:

What type of epithelial tissue lines the bladder and allows for its expansion and contraction?

a) Simple squamous epithelium

b) Stratified squamous epithelium

c) Simple cuboidal epithelium

d) Transitional epithelium

e) Pseudostratified columnar epithelium

Question 82:

Which nerves are primarily responsible for the sensation and motor control of the bladder?

a) Sciatic nerve

b) Hypogastric nerve

c) Pelvic splanchnic nerves

d) Femoral nerve

e) Pudendal nerve

Question 83:

In the anatomical positioning of the renal hilum structures from anterior to posterior, what is the correct order?

a) Renal vein, renal artery, ureter

b) Ureter, renal artery, renal vein

c) Renal artery, renal vein, ureter

d) Renal vein, ureter, renal artery

e) Ureter, renal vein, renal artery

Question 84:

What muscle in the bladder wall is responsible for contracting to expel urine during micturition?

a) Detrusor muscle

b) Dartos muscle

c) Cremaster muscle

d) External urethral sphincter

e) Internal urethral sphincter

Question 85:

What are the three layers of the renal corpuscle that are involved in the filtration barrier?

a) Simple squamous epithelium, basement membrane, smooth muscle

b) Fenestrated endothelium, basement membrane, podocytes

c) Transitional epithelium, basement membrane, endothelial cells

d) Cuboidal epithelium, basement membrane, mesangial cells

e) Endothelial cells, collagen fibres, epithelial cells

Question 86:

Where are juxtaglomerular cells primarily located?

a) In the renal cortex

b) In the renal medulla

c) Around the glomerular capillaries

d) In the walls of the afferent arteriole

e) In the distal convoluted tubule

Question 87:

What is the primary role of the macula densa cells?

a) To reabsorb sodium and water

b) To secrete renin

c) To sense sodium concentration in the distal convoluted tubule

d) To release erythropoietin

e) To filter blood plasma

Question 88:

Which of the following best describes Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR)?

a) The volume of plasma filtered per minute by all nephrons in the kidneys

b) The rate of urine flow into the bladder

c) The rate of blood flow through the kidneys

d) The rate of sodium reabsorption in the proximal convoluted tubule

e) The rate of urea excretion in the urine

Question 89:

What is the normal Filtration Fraction (FF) in a healthy adult?

a) 10%

b) 20%

c) 40%

d) 60%

e) 80%

Question 90:

Which of the following correctly describes the layers of the uterus from innermost to outermost?

a) Endometrium, myometrium, perimetrium

b) Myometrium, endometrium, perimetrium

c) Perimetrium, myometrium, endometrium

d) Endometrium, perimetrium, myometrium

e) Myometrium, perimetrium, endometrium

Question 91:

Which of the following structures is homologous to the male penis?

a) Labia majora

b) Clitoris

c) Urethral folds

d) Labia minora

e) Bartholin’s glands

Question 92:

In the male reproductive system, what is the fate of the gubernaculum, and what is its remnant in females?

a) Becomes the scrotal ligament in males and the round ligament in females

b) Becomes the epididymis in males and the fallopian tube in females

c) Becomes the vas deferens in males and the uterosacral ligament in females

d) Becomes the seminal vesicles in males and the ovarian ligament in females

e) Becomes the prostate gland in males and the broad ligament in females

Question 93:

Which hormone is primarily responsible for the positive feedback mechanism during ovulation, and what cells are involved in its production?

a) Luteinising hormone (LH), produced by the granulosa cells

b) Oestrogen, produced by the theca interna cells

c) Progesterone, produced by the corpus luteum

d) Luteinising hormone (LH), produced by the anterior pituitary

e) Oestrogen, produced by the granulosa cells

Question 94:

In the context of the male reproductive system, which cells are responsible for producing testosterone and where are they located?

a) Sertoli cells, located in the seminiferous tubules

b) Leydig cells, located in the interstitial tissue of the testes

c) Spermatogonia, located in the seminiferous tubules

d) Granulosa cells, located in the seminiferous tubules

e) Theca cells, located in the interstitial tissue of the testes

Question 95:

Which of the following processes involves the transformation of spermatids into mature spermatozoa?

a) Spermatogenesis

b) Spermiogenesis

c) Spermiation

d) Oogenesis

e) Folliculogenesis

Question 96:

A 32-year-old pregnant woman presents for her first prenatal visit. She has had three prior pregnancies, with two full-term deliveries and one spontaneous abortion at 8 weeks. What is her gravidity and parity?

a) Gravidity 4, Parity 2

b) Gravidity 3, Parity 2

c) Gravidity 4, Parity 3

d) Gravidity 3, Parity 3

e) Gravidity 4, Parity 1

Question 97:

Which of the following is the most accurate method for estimating the due date of a pregnancy, and what factor influences this accuracy?

a) Last menstrual period (LMP) method.

b) Gestational age based on ultrasound measurement of crown-rump length (CRL)

c) Calculation based on conception date,

d) Calculation of pregnancy duration from the date of positive pregnancy test

e) Estimation based on maternal fundal height

Question 98:

Which of the following describes the correct relationship between glomerular filtration rate (GFR), renal plasma flow (RPF), and filtration fraction (FF)?

a) FF = GFR / RPF, where FF represents the fraction of plasma filtered

b) FF = RPF / GFR, where FF represents the amount of plasma reaching the glomerulus

c) GFR = FF × RPF, where FF represents the fraction of plasma filtered

d) RPF = GFR / FF, where FF represents the fraction of plasma filtered

e) GFR = FF × RPF, where FF represents the amount of plasma reaching the glomerulus

Question 99:

A 45-year-old woman presents with pelvic pain and urinary incontinence. During examination, the pelvic outlet and pelvic inlet are evaluated. Which of the following best describes the anatomical differences between the male and female pelvic inlet?

a) The male pelvic inlet is more circular, while the female pelvic inlet is more heart-shaped.

b) The female pelvic inlet is wider and more circular, compared to the male pelvic inlet.

c) The male pelvic inlet is wider and more oval, whereas the female pelvic inlet is narrower and more triangular.

d) The female pelvic inlet is more oval and narrower, while the male pelvic inlet is round and wider.

e) The pelvic inlet is identical in both males and females with no significant anatomical differences.

Question 100:

A 35-year-old male patient is diagnosed with a varicocele. During surgery, the surgeon needs to consider the function of the cremaster muscle. Which of the following statements accurately describes the cremaster muscle and its innervation?

a) The cremaster muscle elevates the testis and is innervated by the ilioinguinal nerve.

b) The cremaster muscle lowers the testis and is innervated by the pelvic splanchnic nerve.

c) The cremaster muscle assists in thermoregulation of the testis and is innervated by the iliohypogastric nerve.

d) The cremaster muscle elevates the testis and is innervated by the genitofemoral nerve.

e) The cremaster muscle is responsible for penile erection and is innervated by the pudendal nerve.

Question 101:

A 28-year-old female patient presents with stress urinary incontinence. During her evaluation, her pelvic floor muscles are assessed. Which of the following muscles is not involved in the support of the pelvic floor?

a) Levator ani

b) Coccygeus

c) Ischiocavernosus

d) Pubococcygeus

e) Puborectalis

Question 102:

A 40-year-old female patient complains of urinary leakage when she sneezes or laughs. Which of the following muscles is specifically responsible for the voluntary control of the external urethral sphincter?

a) Compressor urethrae

b) Sphincter urethrovaginalis

c) Pubococcygeus

d) Ischiocavernosus

e) Bulbospongiosus

Question 103:

A 30-year-old male presents with reduced sperm count and abnormal seminal fluid. Which of the following structures is most responsible for the production of seminal fluid that nourishes and helps transport sperm?

a) Prostate gland

b) Bulbourethral glands

c) Seminal vesicles

d) Epididymis

e) Vas deferens